Given the Syrian, Iranian and Hezbollah's constant claim of innocence in the killing of the former Lebanese prime minister, why then is hezbollah doing its best to veto the inquiry?
Now I know the answer, i'm not dumb, i know that they, syria and maybe iran are behind the killing, no doubt anymore. But what is the formal excuse hizbollah is giving to the veto. Surely they should have a descent excuse before doing so, surely they dont want people believing they are the murderers. nevertheless, i could find no documentation on it, does anyone know?
2006-11-14
00:50:40
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4 answers
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asked by
ff9_terra
2