Why is it that both extreme right wing as well as everyday conservative Christians choose to refer to Leviticus:18:22 when discussing homosexuality but they never mention Leviticus 18:19 which states that you cannot sleep with a woman during the unclean period of her menstrual cycle? Now, there's a slim chance that I am wrong, but I suspect that the overwhelming majority of die hard christians have enjoyed marital relations durong a certain time in the wifes cycle at least once in their marrriage.... If we are to take Leviticus seriously as the, "infallible, living word of God," then why are heterosexuals not held to the same rigorous standards as homosexuals? Doesn't it seem that Leviticus is being interpreted one way on some points and taken as gospel as others? Surely it makes sense to acknowledge that allowances must be made for advances in culture and human evolution.
In answering, let's keep it polite and try to respect each other and our oppinions.
2007-03-02
03:32:42
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6 answers
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asked by
mufflerbearings1967
3
in
Other - Society & Culture