Given that there's no empirical evidence as to the existence or nonexistence of God, a supreme, ineffable and indescribably complex being, doesn't Occam's razor mean that by far the most reasonable assumption is his nonexistence?
Keep in mind that although this may be a nonissue to some, who may consider themselves to have proof of God's existence in the form of miracles or the Bible, but this does not, of course, apply to me.
I look forward to reading your responses.
2006-07-10
15:07:55
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14 answers
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asked by
nobody
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Religion & Spirituality