This quote
Matthew 26:39 - (NLT)
Jesus went on a little farther and fell face down on the ground, praying, "My Father! If it is possible, let this cup of suffering be taken away from me. Yet I want your will, not mine."
If Jesus and God are the same people then who the heck was he speaking too? He said "I want YOUR will, not MINE". Doesn't that mean there to seperate people? How can the same person have differant wants? And if your the same person why say father? Why not just say "ME!! If it is possible, let this cup of suffering be taken away from me"?
2006-06-18
19:25:29
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26 answers
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asked by
korngoddess1027
5
in
Religion & Spirituality