A co-worker posed this question to me today. If homo-sexuals claim that they are born that way or that they had no choice, and child-molestors or sex-offenders claim the same thing, than how are the two different? I mean both can be consensual, both violate the laws, and both can be based on sexual and/or intimate feelings. To allow one, in all fairness, the law should allow the other. In my opinion neither should be tolerated. Both are predicated basically on sexual impulse on which a relationship in some cases evolves into something more. I mean, if some kid under-the-age thinks that they are in love and some homo thinks that they are in love or some guy thats about to be caught w/a kid thinks that they are in love, WTF is the difference?
2006-06-13
18:02:56
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20 answers
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asked by
Timmy N
2
in
Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender