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A co-worker posed this question to me today. If homo-sexuals claim that they are born that way or that they had no choice, and child-molestors or sex-offenders claim the same thing, than how are the two different? I mean both can be consensual, both violate the laws, and both can be based on sexual and/or intimate feelings. To allow one, in all fairness, the law should allow the other. In my opinion neither should be tolerated. Both are predicated basically on sexual impulse on which a relationship in some cases evolves into something more. I mean, if some kid under-the-age thinks that they are in love and some homo thinks that they are in love or some guy thats about to be caught w/a kid thinks that they are in love, WTF is the difference?

2006-06-13 18:02:56 · 20 answers · asked by Timmy N 2 in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender

OK OK. The nick is a joke. U R a moron. Ok next. I shouldn't have use childmolestor because I thought that you would be rational enough to discern that "average" baby raper from the teacher that "rides" the student. The question still stands. It's a mental issue. Your condescending view on children nothwithstanding, this kind of this happens and its mental basis is similar---sex. Minus excuses (well, umm he's a good guy, he's nice, well she's a good person)

2006-06-13 18:41:07 · update #1

ok dammit. What about the teacher that ****** we student, went to prison and later married.. Why do I have to spicify w/U people??

2006-06-13 18:43:28 · update #2

20 answers

YOU don't make any sense. How can you equate homosexuality with child molestation and other sex-offenses (rape, indecent exposure, etc)? Where are you and your kooky co-worker coming from?

You are wholly ignorant of what homosexuality is and as a result you are wholly intolerant and hateful. Why else would you lump homosexuals together with the criminally insane.

Homophobes like you and your co-worker never fail to amaze me in your efforts to denigrate and debase other human beings who, only happen to be a little different from yourselves.

2006-06-13 18:27:57 · answer #1 · answered by allankw 4 · 0 1

As a point of fact, more often than not child molestors, sex offenders, and rapists are heterosexual. And, for clarification, this is a crime because a chlid is not physiologically, physically, or mentally capable to act as a consenting adult.

Gays, lesbian, trangendered, or bisexual behaviour is obviously something that concerns you and you have dedicated at least some mental processing time to it. Unfortunately, your question presupposes that there is something wrong with it; that there must be a 'means' by which LGBT arrive to a 'conclusion' to be the way [we] are.

Whether the responses are "I was born this way" or "I was clunked on the head" really isn't the heart of the matter here. You state your case simply (albeit irrationally) enough by stating the "Gay people don't make any sense". That having been said, you should understand that [our] not making sense to you is the direct result of your inability to figure it out or simply being unwilling to understand it. This speaks more to your close-mindedness rather than a genuine effort to try to understand. That is evident in your original post which effectively groups homosexuals with child molestors and sex offenders. These groups are VERY different animals altogether. I know you've spoken to this with your "additional comments", but it still stands and your words cannot be undone.

Homosexuality is not predicated on sexual impulse. It is a natural course of behaviour not unique unto itself, and is shared with heterosexuality. It is sexual evolution. And humans are not the only species on the planet in which homosexuality is present. Many species of birds and mammals exhibit homosexual tendencies and behaviours. That said, if a "lower" animal is homosexual, then where is the conscious effort to be that way? Why should humans be the exception to this evolutionary rule? The answer: they're not!

What this ultimately boils down to is this: You are incapable of understanding why a man could have sex with, or love another man, or woman, or both.

In order to get past this particular hurdle, you are going to have to learn and understand what love is -beyond the physical. Once you understand that love crosses all boundaries (whether that be sex, religion, politics, race), then perhaps you may be halfway to your answer.

For now, I leave you with this advice: Don't let this keep you up at night. Unless you enjoy staying up late at night thinking about guys having sex. ... Also, don't be too concerned what goes on in the bedrooms, homes, or hearts of those to claim their rightful place in the world. Keep and follow your own path, be true to yourself, and your own truths.

Perhaps one day, when your mind is more open, you may free yourself from this ignorance and self-hatred.

2006-06-15 14:26:15 · answer #2 · answered by I.Am.The.Storm. 4 · 0 0

I can help you in many ways.

1) The word is homosexual, there is not a hyphen in it.

2) Child-molesters and sex offenders are acting out of a compulsion, by its very nature a mental disorder. The psychiatric community corrected their view of homosexuality (no hyphen there, either) to remove it from the list of disorders. There is likely a genetic connection to most homosexuality; the same has not been shown in child-molesters or other sex offenders. Further, homosexuals have an affections preference for people of the same gender, not a sexual compulsion.

3) Both are not consensual. Children are, by definition, below the age of consent.

4) The laws that are broken in the case of homosexuals are also regularly broken by consenting heterosexual adults in the case of sodomy laws. These are not the same as the laws against child molestation.

5) Taken as a whole, the argument of "consensual...violate the laws, and ... based on sexual and/or intimate feelings" also applies to heterosexual marriages.

6) Both are not "predicated basically on sexual impulse." The abuse of children is much the same as rape -- it is not about affection, love, or sex. It is about power. Even rapists have claimed that their victims loved them, but rape remains about power.

7) The relationship of a chlid abuser and the abuse victim can, indeed, develop into something more -- based on pain, fear, and torment. Molestors become something akin to terrorists in their victims minds by the very nature of the relationship.

8) "If some kid under-the-age thinks they are in love" then his or her psyche has been damaged and will have to work to be healed.

9) "If some homo (I will add sexual for you) thinks that they is in love with some guy" then "they" are not a lesbian

10) "some guy that's about to be caught w/a kid" is more often than not a heterosexual who stands a good chance of being related to the victim.


There is not one bit of difference. There are vast amounts of it.

2006-06-14 01:14:30 · answer #3 · answered by blueowlboy 5 · 0 0

You are mistaken, child molestation cannot be consensual because the reason there is an age restriction on sexual activity is because people that young are not mentally capable of consenting to sex and understand the consequences that come with it.

A homosexual wants to be with another adult who CAN consent to it. There is no harm to anyone involved as long at is consentual. Adult homosexuals have the knowledge to consent into this.

A rapist and a child molestor does cause harm because it cannot be consentual due to mental limitation or, just not consentual.

Child molestors do not fall in love with children. They simply use them for sexual gratification and gender is generally not an issue, either will do.

The difference is consent and consequences. When people get hurt, things are against the law. And homosexuality is not against the law or there would have to be a lot more jails.

Oh and raheem....so it is unnatural also for an infertile person to have sex...because they can;t produce children. And how about women after menopause, they can't produce children either, so it is also unnatural for them to have sex? How about men w/ vasectomies and women with their tubes tied...unnatural and should not have sex right? There would be a lot of pissed off heterosexuals then too....

2006-06-14 01:35:28 · answer #4 · answered by scorp 3 · 0 0

Neither do some religions should we ban them too?? Should something be made illegal just because it is not understood. U r very extreme comparing homesexuality and child molestation is like comparing heroine and candy. Child molesters use their "impulses" as u so delicately put it to violate children even if a child or young teenager is consenting they do not have the mental capacity in most cases to tell some one what is going on. What ur question fundamentally says is that gay people should have the same rights as people who have been convicted of child molestation, therefore u r saying gay people should be locked up behind bars... well that seems completely fair, not get a life if u don't like someone lives the life then don,t look at them

2006-06-14 01:22:31 · answer #5 · answered by channy 2 · 0 0

Homosexual acts are not illegal in the US. The Supreme Court saw to that. Homosexuality is consensual between two adults.

Child molestation is illegal and cannot be consensual because children (as defined by law, varying from state to state) cannot give consent.

Sex offenders (ie rapists or flashers, etc) are by definition breaking the law because their victim does not consent to the act.

Teachers who have sex with their students are breaking the law and should be convicted of child molestation. It is not the child pressing the law but the parents and the state, no matter if the child consented to the act or not (children cannot by law give such consent). If the child as an adult makes the decision to marry the teacher, there are no laws preventing it because two consenting adults have entered into that contract.

The difference, to answer your co-worker's question, is consent. Adults can legally consent, children cannot.

2006-06-14 02:49:34 · answer #6 · answered by dougeebear 7 · 0 0

Well one thing is that mental health professionals like psychiatrists and psychologists disagree with you. The DSM IVR is the Manuel they use to diagnose mental health disorders and homosexuality and bisexuality are not listed in the Manuel anywhere whereas pedophilia is. for another thing gay sex is normally consensual between adults whereas pedophilia is by definition never between adults and is almost always forced/coerced on the younger victim. Furthermore, gay sex under normal conditions does not leave gay people emotionally traumatized however pedophilia almost always does leave the victim emotionally traumatized. Finally the researchers studying both believe the evolution of both behaviors are completely different. While homosexuality has a genetic component and a learned component, this normally occurs at a very young age and though normal observation and cannot be successfully unlearned. whereas pedophilia doesn't begin to evolve until after puberty almost exclusively in men with poor social skills and extremely active sex drives with no normal mode of sexual release. The majority of these people were subject to the same treatment themselves as children. Pedophilia can be treated through orgasmic reconditioning with a 98% success rate. the case of the teacher who went to jail for having an affair with her student was not a clear cut case of pedophilia, yes it was illegal so she went to jail. I'm not going to debate the moral value of that specific case because I don't personally know anyone involved but there is a bit of a difference between an older adolescent consenting to engage in illegal sex with an adult and a forty year old man forcing himself on a six year old girl.

2006-06-14 06:59:30 · answer #7 · answered by sooziebeaker 3 · 0 0

First of all how can you be so judgmental with a name like chief_ lickum (Oh I see now you change your name to Timmy...) Seriously look at yourself first. Child molesters and gays are two entirely different issues. Child molesters are taking advantage of innocent children. Child molestation can not be consensual (as you say in your question) because a child is not legally able to consent. Gays have loving consensual relationships with ADULTS. Big difference!

2006-06-14 01:27:04 · answer #8 · answered by amsmitty 3 · 0 0

How can you even compare the two? Being a child molester is a sickness, being gay isn't! Being gay is NOT predicted on sexual impulse, we love to ya know? What is your problem, you are taking to completely different things and making them one! Just because a guy is gay doesnt mean that every guy he see's he wants to f*ck, and not every girl that a lesbian see's wants to f*ck her! And we are not violating any laws, we arent getting married, because we can't, we aren't claiming our partners on our taxes, because we can't! There is NO LAW that tells you who you can and cannot love! But obviously you dont know what love is!

2006-06-14 01:56:58 · answer #9 · answered by munkypoo1 3 · 0 0

gay people dont rape children. The difference between them is one likes young children the other likes the same sex. The law doesnt allow Child abuse..it happens and sometimes it doesnt get told and other times it does. But with Gay people the law cant really do anything about it but ban Marriage.

2006-06-14 01:15:56 · answer #10 · answered by Dani021 2 · 0 0

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