Just now,I posted a question "is it possible for one culture to be superior to another one?"
Most people told me that there's are difference among cultures but no superiority or inferiority.
Now,I got a more weird question. You see, culture,like any other things,is changing, is developing. For a certain culture, it now must be different from what it was 100 years ago. They are one culture in different period, and we may treat them as two relatively separated cultures,right? According to the principle of development, the latter one would be superior to the fomer one because the culture has changed for better(if we assume that development is positive,otherwise,the culture has changed for worse!).
Therefore, we can draw a conclusion that one culture may be superior or inferior to another,huh?
2006-10-13
01:24:47
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2 answers
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asked by
Jason N
2
in
Sociology