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Just now,I posted a question "is it possible for one culture to be superior to another one?"
Most people told me that there's are difference among cultures but no superiority or inferiority.

Now,I got a more weird question. You see, culture,like any other things,is changing, is developing. For a certain culture, it now must be different from what it was 100 years ago. They are one culture in different period, and we may treat them as two relatively separated cultures,right? According to the principle of development, the latter one would be superior to the fomer one because the culture has changed for better(if we assume that development is positive,otherwise,the culture has changed for worse!).

Therefore, we can draw a conclusion that one culture may be superior or inferior to another,huh?

2006-10-13 01:24:47 · 2 answers · asked by Jason N 2 in Social Science Sociology

2 answers

this is a good question.

If you think about this, developing countries are behind (in terms of progress) than deveoped countries. The culture in the developed countries is rich because their economy is stable and people are happy in general. This may not be the case for developing counties as they lack what the developed countries have.

so, one culture is superior to other...

2006-10-13 03:18:19 · answer #1 · answered by Zed 3 · 0 0

Our culture makes us who we are. Everybody should grow not just with ourselves, but with our society as well. It's part of life. Others feel superior or inferior because they are brought that way. But it's all in the mind and we can change it. WE people are the one making it that way.

2006-10-13 08:42:31 · answer #2 · answered by Igor 1 · 0 0

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