this question intrigues me. i havent gotten around to asking how this could occur.
how could the participants of WW1+2 (Britain, France, Germany, Austria, Italy and Russia) muster millions of men for world for the second world war when they lost so millions in the first? i dont think there was enough men to create a baby boom in the 20s and 30s. can someone help me out?
also what was the male-female ratio of these countries in respective wars? how long did it take for these countries after both wars to replenish its male population to equilibrium?
2007-08-26
05:08:39
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7 answers
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asked by
smithese
1