If Jesus was appointed/chosen as Savior since the beginning and before the world began, why does Isaiah 43:11 say "I, I am the LORD, and besides me there is no savior"?
John 1:1-2 in your NWT says "1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. 2 This one was in [the] beginning with God."
If Jesus was the Word, and he was WITH god IN THE BEGINNING and he was "a god", then why does Deuteronomy 32:39 say "SEE now that I—I am he
And there are no gods together with me"?
2007-12-31
08:15:35
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16 answers
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asked by
Jereme K
3
in
Religion & Spirituality