Jehovah's Witnesses, can you explain something regarding Jesus?

Question

If Jesus was appointed/chosen as Savior since the beginning and before the world began, why does Isaiah 43:11 say "I, I am the LORD, and besides me there is no savior"?

John 1:1-2 in your NWT says "1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. 2 This one was in [the] beginning with God."

If Jesus was the Word, and he was WITH god IN THE BEGINNING and he was "a god", then why does Deuteronomy 32:39 say "SEE now that I—I am he
And there are no gods together with me"?

Answer 1

I've read through most of your answers, and if you've ever seen one of those optical illusions where the lines are not connected properly, this is how I see Jehovah's Witness theology. I just can't see how Jesus can be a demigod with one of the 10 Commandments being, "thou shalt not have no other gods before me" if Jesus had a "little g" in his title. The Father must have let that one slide by. If one believes the statement about existing and being a part of creation before the foundations of the world, and then pulling back and calling that Person "not God," then we are looking at blasphemy in denying his position in a Godhead. Both concepts are shown in the Bible, and we reconcile them with a mystery, not a resolution of demigod.

Answer 2

Jesus in answering Satan said: “It is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” Jesus adhered to the fundamental truth that worship—hence also prayers—is to be addressed only to his Father, Jehovah God.—Luke 4:8; 6:12 The context of Philippians 2:9 shows that Jesus received this “name” after his death and resurrection. Hence, before that time he did not have “the name that is above every other name.” His being given it indicated a change in his status. Is there any way that Jehovah’s status could ever be changed? No. He has always been supreme. Jesus’ being given a higher name thus proves that he is not the same as, or equal to, Jehovah. Notice, too, that the name was ‘kindly given’ to Jesus by Jehovah. Clearly, if God can choose to give such a name to his Son, Jesus, then the Father must be greater, and Jesus must be subordinate. (1 Corinthians 11:3) Thus it is that any honor going to Jesus because of this high privilege is “to the glory of God the Father.”—Philippians 2:11. Hence, Jesus was given a name that was higher than that given to any other of God’s creatures. But clearly his receiving this name did not make him equal to God. Compare 1 Corinthians 15:27, which says that God subjected all things under Jesus’ feet but was not himself subject to Jesus.

Answer 3

You are correct in that Deut 32:39 Jehovah says that there is no other gods beside him.

By reading the context of Deut., one can see that he was referring to the fact that the Israelites had deviated to false gods (see Deut. 29:28,29) In Deut. 30 :2,8,9. Jehovah is pleading with them to return to him.

Jehovah can and does make gods to represent him though.

Exd 7:1 "And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet."

Answer 4

Clearly, Jehovah empowers Jesus to be humankind's savior.

(1 John 4:14) The Father has sent forth his Son as Savior of the world

(John 3:17) God sent forth his Son into the world... for the world to be saved through him.

(Acts 5:30,31) The God of our forefathers raised up Jesus... God exalted this one as Chief Agent and Savior


Almighty Jehovah ("God the Father") has no peers. Yet, the bible plainly mentions other "gods".
...(1 Corinthians 8:5) there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth

Jesus as "a god": (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18)
Angels as 'gods': (Psalm 82:1)
Satan as a 'god': (2 Corinthians 4:4)
Human judges as "gods": (Psalm 82:6-8)

Acknowledging the existence of other "gods" does not imply that any of these other "gods" are the peer of Almighty Jehovah, God the Father. Jehovah is "the one true God" in the sense that He has no rival.
...(Psalm 86:8,10) There is none like you among the gods, O Jehovah... You are God, you alone.
...(Exodus 22:20) One who sacrifices to any gods but Jehovah alone is to be devoted to destruction.

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/dg/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/lmn/index.htm?article=article_04.htm

Answer 5

What my brothers and sisters have omitted explaining to you is:
In John 1:1-2 where it states that the Word was with God in the 'beginning'.It refers to the beginning of creation not the beginning of time.Because as we know Jesus was the first born of ALL creation.
The scriptures do not say that Jesus was appointed/chosen as Savior since the beginning.Gen3:15 points to a 'seed' that would crush and put an end to Satan and bring salvation to mankind.This 'seed' however was not identified until Jesus presented himself for water baptism in 29CE.It was then he was annointed with Holy Spirit and was approved by God to be the promised Messiah,and became the Christ.

Answer 6

(Hebrews 2:3-4) 3 how shall we escape if we have neglected a salvation of such greatness in that it began to be spoken through [our] Lord [Jesus] and was verified for us by those who heard him, 4 while God joined in bearing witness with signs as well as portents and various powerful works and with distributions of holy spirit according to his [Jehovah's] will?

Did you notice that Jesus did not do the miracles.

God did it.

Just as Paul, Elijah, Moses, and the others who are recorded as doing miracle in the Bible,

It really was Jehovah who performed the miracle.

Jesus was the instrument that Jehovah used to do His Will.

This is why Jesus could say, "Not my will be done."

Jesus was faithful and loyal,

That is why his God anointed him, and made his name better than his partners.

.

Answer 7

Jesus was made savior by God, but NOT before the world began. Mankind did not need a savior until Adam sinned and plunged his offspring into sin and death.

As for the reference to the Word’s ‘being a god,’ it does not disagree with the statement at Deuteronomy 32:39. Why not? Because the “Word” does not stand in opposition to Jehovah nor is he a rival, as was the case with the false gods.

Being God’s firstborn Son, “the Word” could rightly be described as a “god” or powerful one, even as are God’s other angelic sons at Psalm 8:5. But neither the firstborn Son nor the other faithful angelic sons of God stand in opposition to their Creator, or try to equal him or substitute for him, as do false gods. They all recognize that worship is properly directed to Jehovah God alone. Phil. 2:5, 6; Rev. 19:10.

A reading of Isaiah 43:1-12 shows that verse 11 means that Jehovah alone was the One who provided salvation, or deliverance, for Israel; that salvation did not come from any of the gods of the surrounding nations.

Answer 8

In addition to what debbiep said, Jehovah is the mastermind behind the entire salvation plan. Anyone playing a role in salvation is doing so under Jehovah's jurisdiction.

So if a rich man sends someone to come and bail you out of prison, who do you say bailed you out? The person who delivered the money, or the rich man who forked it out?

Answer 9

If I may ...

First, realize when and to whom this was written. This was written at the time when the Israelites were God's chosen people. It was to them he was saying those words. At that point in time, Jehovah was acting in their behalf. They'd abandon Jehovah. They'd get into trouble on their own. Beg for forgiveness and Jehovah bailed them out.

Jesus on the other hand was the designated savior of ALL mankind and is the main part of the seed promised in Genesis 3:15. Remember what John said when he first saw Jesus? "Look the lamb of God that takes away the sin of the WORLD."

About John 1:1 - It should read "In the beginning the word was A god.", which Jesus is.

the context lays the groundwork for accurate understanding. Even the King James Version says, “The Word was with God.” (Italics ours.) Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as that other person. In agreement with this, the Journal of Biblical Literature, edited by Jesuit Joseph A. Fitzmyer, notes that if the latter part of John 1:1 were interpreted to mean “the” God, this “would then contradict the preceding clause,” which says that the Word was with God.

Notice, too, how other translations render this part of the verse:

1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.

1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.

1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.

1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.

1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.

1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.

1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.

1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.

Answer 10

Adjective case. Jehovah did not only say this about Jesus, but about Moses too. Exodus 4:16, 7:1. He can appoint any of his subjects to any role he wants.

Jesus is always a subject of and inferior to Jehovah though, even though he (as well as all angelic sons of God) existed before material creation. Job 38:4-7, Rev. 22:16, 1 Cor. 15:24-28. Hence after the 1,000 years he steps down and hands the kingdom back to his father.

Debbie