There are several issues in the US today in which activists on either side are using biblical morality as an argument for their case. Does it make sense to refer to an ancient text for guidance, given the immense cultural differences between biblical times and the present day?
For example, the question of abortion is never specifically addressed in the bible. The reason for this is because at the time the bible was written, the only reason a women would be pregnant was if she was married. Any woman who had premarital sex was labeled a whore. If an unmarried woman was raped, she was forced to marry the rapist, thus removing the question of whether or not to have the rapist's child. Women were viewed as property in this age. Should the views of such a culture influence our morality today?
This question is not about the abortion issue; it is a more general question of ancient versus modern morality.
2006-09-02
09:17:44
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24 answers
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asked by
Danzarth
4
in
Religion & Spirituality