In particular, there were some allegations that the Republicans stole the 2004 election, but I don't understand why, if this was true, they couldn't do it every election cycle.
In other words, why is it that when Republicans won in 2004 it was because of voter fraud, voter supression, neocon conspiracy, etc., but when Democrats took both houses of the congress in 2006, it was the will of the people (or was it)? Couldn't the Republicans have just done the same thing in 2006 as they allegedly did in 2004 (maybe they couldn't)?
What am I missing here? Serious answers only, please.
2007-12-06
08:47:37
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10 answers
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asked by
Brian
3