I was just reading about the current elections in Sweden and that again reminded me of what I've been thinking of so often. Why is it so usual that political elections divide a country exactly into two? Why is such ratio such as 48:49 so common? I know there are places where democrasy works differently or due to corruption, there are rates with 90:10. But seriously, why is it fifty-fifty rather than, say, 20:75? Thanks in advance!
2006-09-17
10:18:15
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1 answers
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asked by
Anonymous