home buyer, in 2005. I am many years less than 59. My "advisors" had not informed me that this sort of early withdrawal is only tax exempt if it is made at least 5 yrs after the creation of the Roth (the Roth started in 2002); I thought it was tax exempt just because it was used as a first time homebuyer cost. I made this unfortunate finding just now, as I research my reply to the CP2000 the IRS sent me a few months ago, stating that I owe them $900 in taxes. My question: is this true? Am I screwed? I have also read that your contributions to the Roth can be withdrawn "anytime" without tax or penalty. Can this be true? If so, and if contributions are the first to be withdrawn, then didn't part or all of my $3000 distribution in 2005 actually consist of contributions, so that part or all of it should be exempt from tax? Anyone?
2007-12-10
09:33:33
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3 answers
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asked by
geeker
1
in
United States