OK... My question is after reading the bible: If Jesus had no father, then why does the bible say:
Matthew 1:24-25 says, "Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS." "Till" (until) means that after that point, Joseph did "know" (have sexual relations with) Mary. (See
Genesis 4:1 where Adam "knew" Eve and she conceived and had a son.)
And, being an aspiring Catholic, I do look to Mary - so why all the hubub about her? To me it balances things (Queen of Heaven, not the one in charge), as having only the Father (Don't bother with the "Genderless" nonsense, he's called "The Father," C'mon now!) and the son makes a disfunctional family, that doesn't have the feminine of any value. So please, if you can't love your neighbor, then please keep to yourself. I don't want any heated mud slinging (that's what the election is for).
2006-11-20
10:09:02
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9 answers
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asked by
Annie
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Religion & Spirituality