Does the term "son of" for Jesus' lineage in Mt 1 and for Peter in Jn 21 allegorically refer to men, who "should repent"; since what God will have is all men repent (Acts 17:30; 1Timothy 2:3,4; 2Peter 3:9), including Son of Man? For when looking at "Jesus" as "Son of Man", we find in Numbers 23:19 the Son of man "should repent". And even when looking at "Jesus" as "Son of God", well, "Jesus" only ascended to the right of a God of plural and divded "heavens" on "high", whereas "Christ" of Jesus->Christ notably ascended higher: to "heaven": "higher than the heavens". And we are exhorted to mark & avoid those who cause "division" (Rom 16:17) and mind not "high" things (Rom 12:16). So are many(deceived by many) only getting "high" on the "Jesus" part of JC when they should be getting higher in the "Christ" part of JC (in him[Christ] there is no law = NO SIN = no death)?
2006-08-15
01:40:52
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Anonymous
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Religion & Spirituality