Does the term "son of" for Jesus' lineage in Mt 1 and for Peter in Jn 21 allegorically refer to men, who "should repent"; since what God will have is all men repent (Acts 17:30; 1Timothy 2:3,4; 2Peter 3:9), including Son of Man? For when looking at "Jesus" as "Son of Man", we find in Numbers 23:19 the Son of man "should repent". And even when looking at "Jesus" as "Son of God", well, "Jesus" only ascended to the right of a God of plural and divded "heavens" on "high", whereas "Christ" of Jesus->Christ notably ascended higher: to "heaven": "higher than the heavens". And we are exhorted to mark & avoid those who cause "division" (Rom 16:17) and mind not "high" things (Rom 12:16). So are many(deceived by many) only getting "high" on the "Jesus" part of JC when they should be getting higher in the "Christ" part of JC (in him[Christ] there is no law = NO SIN = no death)?
2006-08-15 01:40:52 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus had nothing to repent of, in the sense that you are asking.
though Jesus was a man, he was also God, and was without sin.
2006-08-15 01:52:24 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
In answer to your question, the Hebrew language does not have adjectives. The function was served by saying "son of _____" Son of man=human
...mythkiller-zuba said "It was King James who made Jesus into GeeZoss when it is Jazeus from the Greek."
1. Jesus was "Jesus" in English long before James' name was attached to a translation.
2. The Greek form of the name, just like Yeshua, is built on "God saves." Anyone with even an elementary knowledge of the language should recognize "sozo" the Greek word "save" in "Iesous" or Jesus.
2006-08-15 02:44:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was King James who made Jesus into GeeZoss when it is Jazeus from the Greek.
The Old Testament of the Bible never mentions a Zoss or a sus or a Zeus or a Jesus because the Bible is a Trick that pretends to make sense out of nonsense and to blend worship of Greek Gods with worship of One God Jah, hence Je as in Yeshua and sus as seus or Zeus.
Why pretend to read so much from nothing and you will not honestly and intelligently examine this Roman masterpiece in deception and see, for once in your life, that there are millions of Devils, Legions of Devils, dancing in your little head and darting in and out of your being and possessing you when you "read" your Bible and pretend to understand what is slammed into your face by the Satan on your nose, who will pee in your eye while you think you are one of the chosen of Zeus.
Hey! Get off the brainwash and the hallucinations and start some serious thinking and stop fooling yourself into believing that your wolves are sheep when they only wear the sheep's clothing.
Get the monkey off your back!
2006-08-15 02:00:28 · answer #3 · answered by mythkiller-zuba 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The use of 'son of man' had several applications in the Bible.
SON OF MAN
In Hebrew this is mainly a translation of the expression ben-´a·dham´. Instead of referring to the person, Adam, ´a·dham´ is here used generically for "mankind" so that the expression ben-´a·dham´ means, in essence, "a son of mankind, a human, an earthling son." (Ps 80:17; 146:3; Jer 49:18, 33) The phrase is often employed in parallel with other Hebrew terms for "man," namely, ´ish, meaning "a male person" (compare Nu 23:19; Job 35:8; Jer 50:40) and ´enohsh´, "a mortal man." (Compare Ps 8:4; Isa 51:12; 56:2.) At Psalm 144:3 the "son of mortal man" is ben-´enohsh´, while the Aramaic equivalent (bar ´enash´) appears at Daniel 7:13.
In Greek the expression is hui·os´ tou an·thro´pou, the latter part of the phrase representing the Greek generic word for "man" (an´thro·pos).-Mt 16:27.
In the Hebrew Scriptures the most frequent occurrence of the expression is in the book of Ezekiel, where over 90 times God addresses the prophet as "son of man." (Eze 2:1, 3, 6, 8) The designation as so used apparently serves to emphasize that the prophet is simply an earthling, thus heightening the contrast between the human spokesman and the Source of his message, the Most High God. The same designation is applied to the prophet Daniel at Daniel 8:17.
Christ Jesus, "the Son of Man." In the Gospel accounts the expression is found nearly 80 times, applying in every case to Jesus Christ, being used by him to refer to himself. (Mt 8:20; 9:6; 10:23) The occurrences outside the Gospel accounts are at Acts 7:56; Hebrews 2:6; and Revelation 1:13; 14:14.
Jesus' application of this expression to himself clearly showed that God's Son was now indeed a human, having 'become flesh' (Joh 1:14), having 'come to be out of a woman' through his conception and birth to the Jewish virgin Mary. (Ga 4:4; Lu 1:34-36) Hence he had not simply materialized a human body as angels had previously done; he was not an incarnation but was actually a 'son of mankind' through his human mother.-Compare 1Jo 4:2, 3; 2Jo 7; see FLESH.
For this reason the apostle Paul could apply Psalm 8 as prophetic of Jesus Christ. In his letter to the Hebrews (2:5-9), Paul quoted the verses reading: "What is mortal man [´enohsh´] that you keep him in mind, and the son of earthling man [ben-´a·dham´] that you take care of him? You also proceeded to make him a little less than godlike ones ["a little lower than angels," at Hebrews 2:7], and with glory and splendor you then crowned him. You make him dominate over the works of your hands; everything you have put under his feet." (Ps 8:4-6; compare Ps 144:3.) Paul shows that, to fulfill this prophetic psalm, Jesus indeed was made "a little lower than angels," becoming actually a mortal "son of earthling man," that he might die as such and thereby "taste death for every man," thereafter being crowned with glory and splendor by his Father, who resurrected him.-Heb 2:8, 9; compare Heb 2:14; Php 2:5-9.
The designation "Son of man," therefore, also serves to identify Jesus Christ as the great Kinsman of mankind, having the power to redeem them from bondage to sin and death, as well as to identify him as the great Avenger of blood.-Le 25:48, 49; Nu 35:1-29; see AVENGER OF BLOOD; RANSOM; REPURCHASE, REPURCHASE
As far as the last question, Jesus did not die a death due to Adamic sin, he was sacrificed.
2006-08-15 01:51:34 · answer #4 · answered by rangedog 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
ahhhhh you relate to much!! now this is simple:
jesus never mentioned directly anywhere in the bible that HE IS GOD
neither GOD become SON
your tripping a lot. do not be deceive by false preachers that relates to much. the bible is easy to read, live with it
2006-08-15 02:00:33 · answer #5 · answered by Gamvit 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jehovah's Witnesses unquestionably DO have confidence Jesus to be the Son of God. in addition, Jehovah's Witnesses comprehend that Jesus is a deity, a god in accordance to the Bible itself. of path, the Bible teaches that Almighty Jehovah ("God the father") has no friends. yet, the bible it seems that mentions different "gods". .. ..(a million Corinthians 8:5) there are people who're pronounced as “gods,” notwithstanding if in heaven or in the international Jesus as "a god": (John a million:a million; Isaiah 9:6; John a million:18) Angels as 'gods': (Psalm 80 two:a million) devil as a 'god': (2 Corinthians 4:4) Human judges as "gods": (Psalm 80 two:6-8) No human or angel ought to ever compete with Almighty God, and the bible is obvious to stay away from that suggestion. Jehovah is "the only genuine God" in the sense that He has no rival. .. ..(Psalm 86:8,10) there is none such as you between the gods, O Jehovah... you're God, you on my own. .. ..(Exodus 22:20) one that sacrifices to any gods yet Jehovah on my own is to be committed to destruction. in addition, only Jehovah the father reward worshipful "unique devotion". Jesus himself made the component that the father merits a different sort of committed "sacred provider". .. ..(Exodus 20:2,5) i'm Jehovah your God... I Jehovah your God am a God exacting unique devotion .. ..(Matthew 4:10) Jesus stated to him: “...‘it is Jehovah your God you will desire to worship, and that's to him on my own you will desire to render sacred provider.
2016-10-02 02:43:22 · answer #6 · answered by kucuba 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
son of a bitxx
2006-08-15 01:42:51 · answer #7 · answered by justcopyandpaste 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What are you asking?
2006-08-15 01:44:20 · answer #8 · answered by RB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋