my wife, my father and myself jointly own a property. No Mortgage or loan applies. The ownership is registered in all three names. The time has come when my father has decided he wants the place sold.
What legaly is the proportion of the sale we are each entitled to. There were no conditions regarding the proportion of ownership upon the original agreement.
Is this then just a straight issue of one third of the proceeds for each party, or will this be in the same or some ratio of each individuals original contribution
2006-07-03
01:43:27
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Marriage & Divorce