The way I understand it, John the baptiser, preached omission of sins through repentance. If I am wrong, please correct me. However, when a christian tries to evangelize a Jewish person this isn't mentioned. Instead, christians maintain that omission of sin was only ever attained by the shedding of blood, which is odd, because the temple was standing during the life of John. Did he preach heresy? (hmmmmmmmmmmmmm, the implications?) With no temple, Jews believe omission of sin can be had by repentence, prayer and good deeds. How is the doctrine of John the baptiser different or similar to the modern rabbinic understanding of omission of sin?
2007-06-19
16:11:12
·
11 answers
·
asked by
shrugger
4
in
Religion & Spirituality