Economics - December 2006

2006-12-04 17:04:11 · 1 answers · asked by alka 1

Basicly what I am looking for is if i payed $18,250,000 for some thing in 1848 what would that be compared to spending today.

2006-12-04 16:42:18 · 2 answers · asked by instdezertrat 1

And how should I go about it?

2006-12-04 16:26:02 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous

2006-12-04 14:20:17 · 5 answers · asked by Puzzle 1

I've heard many libertarian economists say this... is it because the system tends to regulate itself without government intervention I assume? Then why did the world revert from the gold standard then by the early seventies? Is it because it is difficult to maintain?

2006-12-04 13:55:53 · 2 answers · asked by chopin1810900 1

After WWI the US gave russia 8 billion rubles in aid that was never repaid. The rest of the allies added another 5 billion rubles. During and after WWII russia received 20 billion US dollars in aid from the US and Canada and never paid any back. 10 billion dollars in grain from the US in the 70's again never paid back. Without aid from the the billions of dollars of aid from the allies there wouldn't be a russia today. In your opinion, how has this affected relationships between russian and the West?

2006-12-04 13:45:24 · 4 answers · asked by jessica a 2

2006-12-04 13:36:49 · 4 answers · asked by Savi 1

2006-12-04 13:33:41 · 1 answers · asked by Savi 1

opinions!

2006-12-04 13:30:12 · 2 answers · asked by Savi 1

2006-12-04 13:14:49 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous

2006-12-04 12:20:57 · 7 answers · asked by theevine 1

Why was Latin America developed into approximately 40 countries of limited economic wealth after having been colonized by the Spanish and Portuguese while North America developed into two large economically powerful nations after having been colonized by the British??

2006-12-04 12:07:51 · 1 answers · asked by Kimberly C 1

Well i diagree with this statement but voice your opinion, and if you can disagree with it.

Slaves were the most important commodity traded by Europeans.

from the 14th through 16th centuray

2006-12-04 11:58:31 · 2 answers · asked by captainbrogan 1

Do you really think china is going to be the next USA, as far is economic power goes. They've showed rappid growth over the pas few decades. They're going to reduce their reserve of our precious Dollar due to less demand. If u have a yes or no answer dont even bother anwering it. I dont want you to tell me "yes" cus u've heard someone else say it.

2006-12-04 11:51:20 · 6 answers · asked by apologetic123 1

2006-12-04 11:49:42 · 1 answers · asked by Brittne 1

If captialism increases the gap between the rich and the poor, how does this explain the unsurpassed economic growth in China as their economy embraces the pricipals of captialism? What is the explanation of the rising of people from poverty to a new middle class in China? How do you explain the growing upper class there, when just a few years ago the majority population were considered in poverty? Isn't China better off now, as more people want to buy cars, and more people are not wondering where the next meal is going to come from? How does this long-over due death of a myth explain away the contrast of life between North and South Korea? Isn't poverty in this day and age really about suppresion of people, denial of ownership from people, and dictorial control of localized government? Western governments and private orgs have been sending funds to poor nations for quite a number of years, yet things never get better. Isn't it time that we confront the real road blocks out of poverty?

2006-12-04 11:39:18 · 3 answers · asked by Flunky C 1

there are too many people in cairo that traffic is gridlocked everyday.

2006-12-04 10:28:37 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous

I have done some research into the meaning of 'normal profits' and the notion of it is still very vague to me. So far, I understand 'normal profits' to mean 'a profit made by a firm which breaks even with the total cost of the firm.' At break even, TC=TR; and no profit is made. So does that mean that normal profit is actually no profit?

I read somewhere that there is a relationship between normal profits and opportunity cost, or rather, opportunity cost is needed to define the meaning of 'normal profits'.

If anyone can clarify this for me, i would appreciate it very much. Thanks!

2006-12-04 10:19:00 · 7 answers · asked by Haopei 2

2006-12-04 10:02:27 · 5 answers · asked by tom 1

And were stiill paying out the *** for gas?

2006-12-04 09:31:38 · 4 answers · asked by John N 2

2006-12-04 09:06:37 · 4 answers · asked by Alina P 1

2006-12-04 07:01:45 · 6 answers · asked by km 1

Like say the nationalist won rather than the commies

ECONOMY
PEOPLE
TECHNOLOGY
POWER
STANDARD OF LIVING

2006-12-04 06:56:48 · 1 answers · asked by mojojojo 2

a) GDP increase of $400 billion
b) GDP decrease of $500 billion
c) GDP increase of $500 billion
d) intdterminate change of GDP

what's the answer?

2006-12-04 06:54:24 · 3 answers · asked by christineohyes 1

Does total revenue increase at a constant rate or not?

2006-12-04 06:36:48 · 2 answers · asked by James 1

I am just confused. What causes our dollar to be worth more or less on the international market?

2006-12-04 05:39:50 · 4 answers · asked by The Pilot 3

2006-12-04 04:50:16 · 4 answers · asked by Belarmino a 1

2006-12-04 04:33:36 · 6 answers · asked by Belarmino a 1

i need the obvious reasons and fast i beg

2006-12-04 02:37:49 · 2 answers · asked by funso b 1

2006-12-04 02:01:05 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous