Why do Jews use this word to describe 'hostility against' them? The majority of Jews in the US and Israel are not even purely Semitic since they have interbred with the Anglo Saxons for centuries. Aren't the true Semites those who are Middle Eastern (the Arabs, Arab Muslims, Arab Christians and Arab Jews who never mixed with the Europeans)? If they refer to 'Semitic' in a religious sense, aren't Islam and Christianity considered Semitic religions then? Wouldn't it extremely ignorant and incorrect to label Muslims/Arabs anti-semitic when the Arabs are technically 'more Semitic' than they are? It would be more accurate to refer to hostility against Jews as 'Anti Jew' rather than 'Anti-Semitic', because the people who are accused to be the most 'anti-semitic' are the Muslim Arabs (who are purely Semitic!)...it's confusing why such an inaccurate term is still being used!!
2007-11-12
22:32:02
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous