Why do Jews use this word to describe 'hostility against' them? The majority of Jews in the US and Israel are not even purely Semitic since they have interbred with the Anglo Saxons for centuries. Aren't the true Semites those who are Middle Eastern (the Arabs, Arab Muslims, Arab Christians and Arab Jews who never mixed with the Europeans)? If they refer to 'Semitic' in a religious sense, aren't Islam and Christianity considered Semitic religions then? Wouldn't it extremely ignorant and incorrect to label Muslims/Arabs anti-semitic when the Arabs are technically 'more Semitic' than they are? It would be more accurate to refer to hostility against Jews as 'Anti Jew' rather than 'Anti-Semitic', because the people who are accused to be the most 'anti-semitic' are the Muslim Arabs (who are purely Semitic!)...it's confusing why such an inaccurate term is still being used!!
2007-11-12 22:32:02 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Anthropology
RT(R)...u should get YOUR facts straight...go look up wikipedia
2007-11-12 23:04:54 · update #1
I believe that the term 'anti-semitic' would more accurately apply to modern arabs and other ethnic tribes that exist in the Middle East (regardless of religion, as long as their descendants of Shem), and any hostility shown against those who slander/oppose zionism should be accurately labeled 'Anti-Zionist' instead of the misleading term of 'Anti-Semitic'
2007-11-12 23:28:24 · update #2
i have looked into haplotypes, and i find it really interesting! however i still do firmly believe that 'anti-semitic' is a very misleading term, and should be done away with and replaced with the more approapriate term of 'anti-zionist'.
2007-11-13 10:10:47 · update #3
Your right. Many of Israel's worst enemies are "semites. " It is one of those stupid phrases that has a different meaning than its literal meaning.
2007-11-13 03:38:15 · answer #1 · answered by JimZ 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Perhaps it stems from the idea that for many Europeans Jews were the first "Semites" they encountered. Also, it probably was not an invention by the Jews.
Also, if you study the haplotypes and genotypes of Mankind, you will see that there really is no people "who are purely Semitic".
2007-11-13 07:11:54 · answer #2 · answered by Nothingusefullearnedinschool 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It's a scare word. It's a word thrown towards you as a blackmail tactic, and is pretty affective. If you question the motives of Zionism in any manner, than you are insensitive to the Holocaust.
2007-11-12 22:36:03 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
its sort of like the N word. the actually definition is different from what its used for..same as anti-semtic..and actually its origins are hebrew, from the bible/noah story. get your facts straight
2007-11-12 22:42:54 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋