Theres now a civil case in Rhode Island (Chambers v. Ormiston) that has my curiosity peaked. It's a divorce case involving a same sex couple that were residents of Rhode Island but married in Massachusettes after same sex marriage was allowed. RI does not have any laws on the books either in support of or outlawing same sex marriage. The judge was given the nod of approval by the state Attorney General to rule as he wishes.
So, can RI claim jurisdiction? And if RI claims jurisdiction in this matter, then they fall under Article I of the Constitution, right? In that case, here's my scenario. If 49 same sex couples were married in Mass., moved to each of the other 49 US states, became residents there, filed for divorce in each state would they not also fall under the same article? In this case, wouldn't each state, in having to accept jurisdiction and grant a divorce, be accepting this is as a legitimate union and pave the way for legalizing same sex marriages in these states?
2006-11-25
10:41:32
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4 answers
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asked by
benread
2