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Theres now a civil case in Rhode Island (Chambers v. Ormiston) that has my curiosity peaked. It's a divorce case involving a same sex couple that were residents of Rhode Island but married in Massachusettes after same sex marriage was allowed. RI does not have any laws on the books either in support of or outlawing same sex marriage. The judge was given the nod of approval by the state Attorney General to rule as he wishes.

So, can RI claim jurisdiction? And if RI claims jurisdiction in this matter, then they fall under Article I of the Constitution, right? In that case, here's my scenario. If 49 same sex couples were married in Mass., moved to each of the other 49 US states, became residents there, filed for divorce in each state would they not also fall under the same article? In this case, wouldn't each state, in having to accept jurisdiction and grant a divorce, be accepting this is as a legitimate union and pave the way for legalizing same sex marriages in these states?

2006-11-25 10:41:32 · 4 answers · asked by benread 2 in Politics & Government Government

Article on Divorce Case
http://www.cnn.com/2006/LAW/11/22/samesex.divorce.ap/index.html

2006-11-25 10:42:14 · update #1

4 answers

Since the federal government looks at marriage as a contract and federal law states that all states must recognize the contracts that were signed in other states then if gay marriage is recognized in one state it must also be recognizes in all states.

It must be removed from the federal tax code to be decided by the states whether it can be banned.

2006-11-25 10:59:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

Best of luck when it is sorted out. Congratulations to whoever is getting married.

2006-11-25 18:50:47 · answer #2 · answered by CT 6 · 0 0

I recommend they go to Iran, say "I divorce you" three times and get it over with.

2006-11-25 18:50:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

pull the knot tight so there won't be n e loopholes!!

2006-11-25 18:46:59 · answer #4 · answered by ~♥~Tiffany~♥~ 4 · 0 1

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