It was Germany who caused all the genocide. When Germany was defeated, it was just for the Jews to get a land of their own. So why didn't the winning powers (US, Britain, Russia) give a part of Germany itself to the Jews?
Why was the Palestinian land chosen to be given to Israel? What authority did the winning powers have to give somebody else's inhabited land to the Jews?
I am totally for Jews getting a country of their own? But why not somewhere else or even a part of Germany? After all, the Jews were all-over. They were in Germany, Poland, Hungary, Russia, US, France, Belgium, Czech, Belgium. Why did they want only the Arab owned land on the Mediterranean?
2006-07-08
05:35:24
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26 answers
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asked by
Shane W
2