There seems to be only two possibilities: Either he isn't "willing" to end suffering, in which case he is not all-loving and therefore is not God; or, he isn't "able" to end suffering, in which case he is not all-powerful, and therefore is not God.
Why, in fact, is he the "cause" of so much, if not almost all, of the suffering mentioned in the bible? It is especially noteworthy that if one reads the bible as it is printed, without the teachings of the church, it might become apparent that the story (whether truth or fiction) is of a messiah who came to save those who had been taken captive "by" the OT God, "from" the OT God. How ironic that the caucasian community embraced the teachings and "salvation" not meant for them, and were then pulled into the belief in a God who had said he wanted nothing to do with them because they were not "His Chosen Ones".
2007-11-18
13:38:23
·
16 answers
·
asked by
velvet_swan
2
in
Religion & Spirituality