This is not a question to be antagonistic, but quite serious. In an effort to keep this short, tell me why these two texts say one thing QUITE PLAINLY, but when I speak with Christians, they have (to me) a strange coded answer that to them makes since, but seems to me that its a cover-up.
The texts?: Matthew 10:22-23 and Matthew 16:27-28.
For those like me who don't have bibles, I suggest www.biblegateway.com and the King James version.
A request for the Christian's, please be logical, not emotional.
2006-07-22
21:33:07
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15 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Religion & Spirituality