Ok, here is my question:
Many composers often prefered not to use key signatures for good reasons (Bartok, Stravinsky, Shostakovich etc.)... there seems to be little information out there on what conventions there are regarding this problem. How does a composer decide what accidentals to use (flats, sharps, double flats/sharps) when there is no key signature? I would be forever greatful if anyone could shed light on this?
(I had asked this question before. Yahoo must have taken my question for a comment and accidentally deleted it. Unfortunately I didn't get a chance to read the responses. I appologize for having to repeat it).
2007-12-26
23:35:44
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10 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Classical