If yes, give an example and if not, explain why not.
Now, given that this is a question as a HW assignment, I would say no because for one object to move one way, it is done by friction on the opposite direction.
HOwever, my friend argues that the direction of friction would be the same as the surface that the object was on. Thus, the table and friction are in the same direction.
I argued that friction force of one object cant be applied to another object....
Can anyone resolve this issue?
2006-10-16
17:10:47
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4 answers
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asked by
leikevy
5