Probably there is no one who has been duped at least once in a lifetime. But in the matter of Indian and world history the world can be duped in many respects for hundreds of years and still continues to be duped. The worlds famous Taj-Mahal is a glaring instance.
1. The term Taj-Mahal itself never occurs in any Mogul court paper or chronicle even in Aurangzeb's time. The attempt to explain it away as Taj-i-mahal is therefore, ridiculous.
2. The ending "Mahal" is never Muslim because in none of the Muslim countries around the world from Afghanistan to Algeria is there a building known as "Mahal".
3. The unusual explanation of the term Taj-Mahal derives from Mumtaz Mahal, who is buried in it, is illogical in at least two respects viz., firstly her name was never Mumtaj Mahal but Mumtaz-ul-Zamani and secondly one cannot omit the first three letters "Mum" from a woman's name to derive the remainder as the name of the building.
4. Since the lady's name was Mumtaz (ending with 'Z') the name of the building derived from her should have been Taz Mahal, if at all, and not Taj (spelled with a 'J').
5. Several European visitors of Shahjahan's time allude to the building, as Taj-e-Mahal is almost the correct tradition. Contrarily Shahjahan and son Aurangzeb scrupulously avoid using the Sanskrit term and call it just a holy grave.
6. The tomb should be understood to signify NOT A BUILDING but only the grave or cenotaph inside it. This would help people to realise that all dead Muslim courtiers and royalty including Humayun, Akbar, Mumtaz, Etmad-ud-Daula and Safdarjang have been buried in captured Hindu mansions and temples.
7. Moreover, if the Taj is believed to be a burial place, how can the term Mahal, i.e., mansion apply to it?
8. Since the term Taj Mahal does not occur in mogul courts it is absurd to search for any mogul explanation for it. Both its components namely, 'Taj' and' Mahal' are of Sanskrit origin.
2006-11-24
10:38:59
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11 answers
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asked by
kayamat_ka_din
3