Sometimes when I get into a conversation about free will, I'll ask someone what other languages he speaks. If he speaks English and took two years of Spanish but hasn't been exposed to any other language, I'll ask if he can suddenly begin speaking in French. If he says no, I'll tell him that if his will is truly free, he SHOULD be able to.
It's a silly argument, but I wonder if there's a more specific category for it among fallacies of logic than "nonsense."
2006-12-31
02:14:45
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18 answers
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asked by
night_train_to_memphis
6
in
Philosophy