Mathematics - 30 June 2006

Off the top of your head what comes to mind? 43 is a prime number.... maybe history 1943, 1843 etc.

2006-06-30 14:07:25 · 17 answers · asked by Inquisitive1 2

2006-06-30 12:57:21 · 22 answers · asked by Samantha L 2

Obviously this is somewhat subjective, but these three are generally considered to be without peer according to most texts written on the history of mathematics.

2006-06-30 12:43:21 · 11 answers · asked by Sparky 1

2006-06-30 12:15:15 · 8 answers · asked by trogdoer 2

what is the mark up percentage of 66.67 - 59.99

2006-06-30 11:21:11 · 2 answers · asked by pamlumby79 1

I want to know how to calculate how many possible combinations of 6 symbols out of 39 symbols can be made
Each symbol can only be used once in each combination (no AAAABC or ABBBBC)
You can't have the same combination twice, just with a mixed up order (ABCDEF, BDEACF, and FEDACB would all count as one, or the same combination)
It would be great if you could prove to me how/why the formula is or number of combinations you come up with is correct
Thank you a lot

2006-06-30 11:10:17 · 8 answers · asked by RobertStrong 2

2006-06-30 11:01:00 · 30 answers · asked by synki 1

yes?

2006-06-30 10:53:35 · 27 answers · asked by kalkmat 3

does anyone know the answer!!!

test your knowledge!!!

2006-06-30 10:24:32 · 32 answers · asked by Anonymous

Prove : A group of order 2002 cannot be simple.

2006-06-30 10:23:38 · 6 answers · asked by denny 1

2006-06-30 10:20:01 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous

2006-06-30 09:52:15 · 15 answers · asked by dave 2

im really needing to know this! Please if you can help me out

2006-06-30 09:45:04 · 13 answers · asked by Ali S 1

check this out its interesting, 1+2+3=6 4+5+6=1+5=6 7+8+9=2+4=6 10+11+12=3+3=6 13+14+15=4+2=6 16+17+18=3+3=6 19+20+21=60=6 22+23+24=6+9=1+5=6 the number 3 and 6 will always be connected! wut other numerological patterns do you know?

2006-06-30 09:25:58 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous

Solve.

2006-06-30 09:12:19 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous

what koms aftre blue

2006-06-30 08:42:48 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous

I understand in calculus that the limit of 1/x as x approches infinity is 0. However, can I simply write 1/∞ = 0 or is this against any rules, just like writing 1/0 is undefined.

If it IS possible to write it as 1/∞ = 0, then shouldn't ∞ * 0 = 1? Or 1/0 = ∞? Shouldn't these variations in what should be the same equation be prove in itself that 1/∞ does not equal 0 and is, in fact, undefined?

2006-06-30 08:42:21 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous

Perform the following subtraction.

2006-06-30 08:39:28 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous

Factor by grouping.

2006-06-30 08:18:13 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous

there is a pie chart that is divided into furnishings 14%, property lot 13%, landscaping 5%,and house 68%

2006-06-30 08:09:53 · 6 answers · asked by valerie h 1

2006-06-30 08:06:02 · 1 answers · asked by kukur_diamond 1

2006-06-30 08:03:48 · 3 answers · asked by kukur_diamond 1

2006-06-30 08:01:19 · 2 answers · asked by kukur_diamond 1

2006-06-30 07:44:17 · 22 answers · asked by George R 2

$343.70 is what percent of $1,497.73?

2006-06-30 07:42:45 · 18 answers · asked by billgutsky 3

2006-06-30 07:19:42 · 6 answers · asked by shibunath s 1

I know that any rational is the ratio of two integers.
I also know that an irrational number is supposed to be an infinite nonrepeating decimal.

So, where does that leave the number 1.999999999...?
If it can be written as the ratio of two integers, please show me which two.
Thanks.

If it's not rational and it's not irrational, then what would it be classified as?

2006-06-30 07:07:41 · 14 answers · asked by scotsgirl 2

2006-06-30 06:56:50 · 10 answers · asked by Ocean 1

2006-06-30 06:55:10 · 1 answers · asked by kukur_diamond 1

2006-06-30 06:48:42 · 3 answers · asked by kukur_diamond 1