I was told back in my school days, and have heared many times subsequently that a man's pre-ejaculate (commonly called "pre-***") is rich in sperm, thereby allowing a woman to become pregnant from pre-ejaculate. I blindly accepted this as fact until recently.
While browing Wikipedia (which is at times a questionable source of info, but still useful for getting leads on new info or casual research) i stumbled on an article that said some research suggested there was little or no sperm in pre-ejaculate, but that there wasn't much research on the subject.
A bit supprised to hear this, I took a sample of my own and put it under my handy-dandy microscope (good quality, more than strong enough to see cells, including sperm, clearly). Again, I was a bit supprised not to see a single sperm cell. And I know for a fact I do not have a problem producing sperm cells.
Basically, I would like more info on this subject. Why did they always say that pre-ejaculate was rich in sperm?
2007-03-29
04:29:08
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6 answers
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asked by
The Link
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