I am a musician and one of the things I haven't quite understand yet is why did this transition happened. Isn't modality more diverse? There is ionian (major tonality), dorian, phrygian, lydian, myxolydian, aeolian (almost minor tonality), (locrian) and if we include key changes etc. a composer has a lot more material at his disposal than major and minor harmonic and melodic tonalities. So why did that happen?
2007-11-10
03:47:13
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4 answers
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asked by
Alexander K
3
in
Classical