It just puzzles me why the UN thought it practical to allocate Jews their own state. Being a Jew is religious, not nationality or race. If the Jews qualified for land on the basis of belonging to a religion, how come no other religion qualified for land allocation even at that time? Jews are multi-race from black to white, showing clearly that they are a religious group. Why did nobody question this at the time?
Also how come the Jews were allocated in the middle East where they stand out like a sore thumb? The most obvious place would have been the deserts of the Arizona or maybe part of Europe such as Spain/the Balkans etc where the population are already warlike.
2006-09-12
00:00:01
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13 answers
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asked by
Mai C
6
in
Politics