How come he NEVER uses huge arpeggiations? I know it seems like an idiotic question because that was how he wanted his music to be, but I just noticed that those gigantic passages Liszt and Ravel used become somewhat extinct in Prokofiev's, Shostakovich's, Shoenberg's and a lot of other modern musicians music.
Maybe I'm just trying to share my (probably nonsensical and absurd and most likely wrong observation) with you... I really don't know.
Though Albert Russel and Dutilleux did still use arpeggiations.
What am I talking about?
2007-12-27
16:06:40
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4 answers
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asked by
sting
4
in
Classical