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Words & Wordplay - February 2007

[Selected]: All categories Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

2007-02-01 02:26:52 · 11 answers · asked by Sweet Pea 3

2007-02-01 02:01:57 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous

...in which attendees are able to speak freely and off-the-record without being encumbered by the responsibilities that they might have to their employers or member organisations? Meetings held like this are intended to encourage attendees to leave any self-interest at the door in order to create an open discussion

2007-02-01 01:59:51 · 5 answers · asked by Mark B 2

I mean do you have something you say alot...

For instance: I can't stop saying "shake n bake" and "I knnoowwww!!" and my best friend says "awesome" too much.

2007-02-01 01:52:10 · 6 answers · asked by Jay's Mommy 4

2007-02-01 01:49:21 · 5 answers · asked by Will G 2

Often on a television news report they might say a crime was committed in "broad daylight", so what is the difference between broad & ordinary, normal daylight.

2007-02-01 01:37:30 · 10 answers · asked by DAVE 6

2007-02-01 01:31:30 · 9 answers · asked by Berserk 1

On the tube this morning, I saw a poster from a well-known charity appealing for funds. On the poster, it said:

'Without your help, we can do nothing'.

I thought about this and, to me, it didn't seem to make sense.

'We can do' is a pro-active statement, of positive action, but 'nothing' is a negative, nothingness, which sort of annuls the pro-active action. How can you pro-actively do something negative?

Surely it should be, 'We can't do anything'?

What are the grammatical rules about this? I would equate it to maths - if you multiply a number by 0, the answer always equals 0. So, if you are pro-actively doing 'nothing', it cancels it out.

Whereas, 'anything' is a positive value (i.e. it's a tangible something), which 'we can't do'. So, 'we can't do anything' is grammatically correct, whereas 'we can do nothing' isn't.

What's the correct answer? Is there one? Does my question even make sense?

2007-02-01 01:30:35 · 18 answers · asked by bunglejemson 1

I have been brought up to say "this monday" to refer to the 1st monday coming up and "next monday" to refer to the monday that follows. is this right. where can i find grammatical reference that covers the use

2007-02-01 01:21:26 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous

2007-02-01 01:02:43 · 5 answers · asked by Yasmin H 3

The idea of the scheme is that people who are on benefits or pensions or are students can use all the facilities at a reduced rate.

The name of the scheme will be used for marketing purposes but it mustn't sound as though it is for paupers (such as calling it the low-income scheme). So, it must sound attractive to those who need it but not too attractive to those who don't (who may question why is it that they pay a lot in taxes and don't get discounts etc and why can't we join the low cost/all the benefits scheme).
A name that also conjours up health and fitness would be good.
Names such as reach, jump start, connect, boost have been suggested.

2007-02-01 00:33:50 · 8 answers · asked by helpme! 1

FANTASY

2007-02-01 00:28:08 · 21 answers · asked by a fantasy 1

Is there a plural in grammar for GOLD?
Can we say i want GOLDS instead of GOLD?

2007-02-01 00:21:30 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous

2007-02-01 00:20:49 · 6 answers · asked by Yasmin H 3

I've made some mistakes, but they aren't always funny. In school I thought the molarity of acid was the morality of acid (boy, did that get me in trouble). But the worst reaction was when I mistook some Lebanese for Lesbians. What about you?

2007-02-01 00:11:37 · 9 answers · asked by dude 5

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