If a doctor inappropriately touches his/her patients under the guise of performing their job, and the patient allowed the touching to occur, do you believe that same patient can later claim that they were victimized upon finding out the doctor was simply making an excuse to cop a feel? Why or why not?
Regardless of the offender's position of trust, I personally think it would be absurd to think a person could go from being "not victimized" to "victimized" just because the context of the situation changed.
This is in regards to the dentist who massaged the breasts of 27 patients under the guise of treating a particular jaw ailment.
2007-10-15
18:37:35
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11 answers
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asked by
Mickey Mouse Spears
7