This is a serious question, I'm not trying to offend anybody, so just please read the whole question before you answer.
Have you ever known any men that you knew for sure were not having Gay sex, but got AIDS from unprotected sexual contact with a woman?
Paul Michael Glaser's (star of Starsky & Hutch series) Wife Elizabeth contracted HIV from a blood transfusion in 1984, she had it for 4 years without knowing it . She passed it onto her children through breast feeding but Michael never got it. How do you explian this.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elizabeth_Glaser_Pediatric_AIDS_Foundation
I was an adult before the public became aware of HIV and in all my years I have only known 2 people to die from it, one was a Gay male and One was an IV drug user.
So, do you actually know someone, or can give me a link something that verifies that this can happen. Do you have any stats on the chances?
Any information you can give me would be greatly apreaciated, Thanks
2007-12-04
13:02:36
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14 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Health
➔ Diseases & Conditions
➔ STDs
Please don't say Magic Johnson, Isiah Thomas hinted to the press that Magic was having gay sex.
2007-12-04
13:05:25 ·
update #1
Blaize, I'm asking you to prve it. Please no first year sex education lessons needed.
2007-12-04
13:09:44 ·
update #2
Mick, where does it say in my question that i want to play sexual Russian roulette with a woman?
Let me simplify this, Please name ONE SINGLE PERSON in particular who has contracted AIDS this way. All I need is one confirmed case.
2007-12-04
13:27:30 ·
update #3
Give me facts, not Dr. opinions, not assumptions, not lectures on morality or safe sex. Again GIVE ME FACTS ONLY!!
2007-12-04
13:40:04 ·
update #4
Snout is right on the money....
Personally, I know of about a hundred cases of HIV transmission that resulted from heterosexual sex. The statistics in Canada show that over 30% of all new infections occur from heterosexual exposure. That number has been growing since the beginning of the epidemic. The number of new cases among the injection drug use population has declined in Canada to about 17-18% of new infections (our harm reduction and outreach efforts have reduced that number from a high of about 35% in 1996.
It is much easier (biologically) for a man to infect a woman than it is for a woman to infect a man. So more women are affected (as we see globally, and in increasing trends in North America)
HIV Transmission does not occur 100% of the time. It is conceivable (and has happened MANY times) where one partner is unknowingly HIV+ and the other is HIV-, and the HIV- partner does not become HIV+. This could be a result of pure luck, a very low viral load on the part of the HIV+ partner which reduces the likelihood of transmission, host factors in the HIV- partner including genetic mutations in immune system function that make it harder for a small percentage of the population to become infected.
I have known many people who have died from HIV -- gay, straight, male, female, old, young. From all walks of life. Many people (including some healthcare workers) still have it in their heads that this is an injection drug user disease or a gay disease and don't think they are at risk (or their patients are at risk).
Anyhow, YES it is possible for a woman to transmit HIV to a male sexual partner. It does happen.
2007-12-05 02:29:13
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answer #1
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answered by BJC 6
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HIV is picked up through blood that does not reach oxygen... therefore if the child was breastfeeding and bit the nipple then it could have easily gotten it through the mouth if they were sucking... Yes, its very possible... go read a book about it or volunteer at an Aids outreach center or ask to speak to a counselor there and they will educate you for free! Just be safe... Even if you use a condom, there are risks involved... Best practice is to take as many precautions as you can and get tested regularly (like once every year or two.)
2007-12-04 13:08:07
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answer #2
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answered by ballistik 4
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First of all, the transmissible infection you are talking about is called HIV. AIDS is the immune system disease that results from usually several years of damage by this infection.
Yes, I have personally known several men who appear to have acquired HIV through heterosexual sex. No, I will not name them: it is neither ethical nor legal to publicly disclose someone's health status without their permission.
The risk of female to male HIV transmission per episode of unprotected vaginal sex is low but is certainly not zero.
However there are a number of factors that can dramatically increase these baseline rates of transmission: the presence of other sexually transmissible infections, a high viral load in the infected partner (as occurs during particular stages of the infection), or atypical strains of the virus are some of the known factors.
Heterosexual intercourse remains HIV's major mode of transmission worldwide.
One European study examining the risk of female to male transmission is
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/sites/entrez?db=pubmed&uid=8601226&cmd=showdetailview&indexed=google
In the US, Nancy Padian is one of the investigators who has done a lot of work on this question. See, for example:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/sites/entrez?cmd=Retrieve&db=PubMed&list_uids=9270414&dopt=AbstractPlus
As for Elizabeth and Paul, there are many serodiscordant couples who remain serodiscordant couples for many years.
When and if transmission will occur can be quite unpredictable.
2007-12-04 23:07:13
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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HIV can be spread to a man from an infected woman through unprotected sex. The chances are decreased if the man is circumcised, but the risk still remains. If you need evidence, look at Africa. The majority of cases there are the result of heterosexual sex.
2007-12-04 14:25:30
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answer #4
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answered by Shy Guy 1
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Here's a reputable source:
http://www.thebody.com/Forums/AIDS/safesex/Current/Q187720.html
I would say considering the devastating effects of AIDS, men shouldn't have unprotected sex with women outside of marriage, even if the risk of contracting AIDS is lower in this situation than in other sexual behaviors.
By the way, using the examples of a few people you know of who didn't get the disease is a logical fallacy called "overgeneralization".
2007-12-04 13:14:25
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answer #5
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answered by drshorty 7
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I am HIV positive and I got it from an ex girlfriend who is negative. When i found out I was positive I was told by people it was hard for a man to get it from a women but I have never found out anything to backed up their theory. I believe I got it from performing oral sex or intercourse on her. Regardless of which way I got this not from being bi or gay but from being a normal heterosexual male. who has never used drugs.At this moment I only have HIV and it has not turned into aids. (look at snout reference)
2007-12-04 23:48:09
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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My understanding that while a man can give a woman AIDS, it is difficult, if not impossible, for a woman to give it to a man during sex. Apparently the virus is so diluted in the woman that It can't be absorbed into his bloodstream. However, if there is blood exchange (you both have cuts - all bets are off.)
2007-12-04 13:08:42
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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No
2016-06-15 13:56:40
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answer #8
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answered by Karthik 1
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I personally don't know anyone, but they don't , as general practice share the names of people who are infected aside for the purpose of further tracking the spreading.
2007-12-04 13:53:54
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answer #9
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answered by Maureen M 3
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any bodily fluids can carry the aids virus even saliva but you have to drinks gallons of it to contract the disease that if you don't have any lesions on your face that came in contact with your partners excreted fluids...
2016-04-07 09:06:19
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answer #10
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answered by ? 4
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