... theological bias?
2007-11-13 22:45:07 · 8 answers · asked by Emperor Insania Says Bye! 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
From another question...
Dikaioma
that which has been deemed right so as to have force of law
what has been established, and ordained by law, an ordinance
a judicial decision, sentence
of God
either the favourable judgment by which he acquits man and declares them acceptable to Him
unfavourable: sentence of condemnation
a righteous act or deed
KJV using strongs:
kai edoqh auth ina peribalhtai bussinon lampron kaqaron, to gar bussinon ta dikaiwmata twn agiwn estin.
It can be translated as righteous act.
Hebrews 9:10
Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.
The word is translated as ordinances or acts.
So the translators of KJV changed in Revelations to match their theology.
2007-11-14 03:48:23 · update #1
Of course, it's already been proven. The Bible has been tampered with by men for ages; heck, it was even put together by men who argued and debated over doctrines and scriptures, the very thing the apostles told the saints NOT to do. That is one sure sign that they did NOT have the spirit of God when they put the Bible together because they failed to obey the warnings of the apostles. Christianity has been in a constant state of apostasy ever since because men are making religion what THEY want it to be. The Bible CONTAINS SOME of God's word, but it is NOT God's literal words. A lot of it is the words of men mixed with the words of God; that's why it's so confusing to people.
2007-11-13 23:04:06 · answer #1 · answered by D P 2 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Oh definitely. The best way to see this is to buy a Jewish Torah and read it side by side with the Christian Old Testament. Both books come from the same Hebrew Texts, yet it is interesting to see how the Jewish translators and Christian translators can mysteriously differ on particular passages that support their own ideas of religion. Both groups will sometimes also use translations from the Septuagint (LXX) and Dead Sea scrolls in their Bibles when it suits their purpose. It is funny how human nature always seems to win out in the end. :)
2007-11-14 07:26:40 · answer #2 · answered by Tea 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. I think many of them lean more towards what doctrines are "in style" at the time. During King James rule, witchcraft was greatly frowned upon (to say the least)... King James himself was VERY paranoid about witches trying to kill him (it didn't help that his fiance was constantly telling him stories about how witches in her kingdom had been placing hexes on him to keep him from claiming her). So, when it was "translated", King James pressured his translators and scholars to lean more towards "killing witches"... as well as making it look as if no matter what King was ruling, God placed him there. This was the break from the rule of the Pope over England. Small "mistranslations", but large enough to rule a kingdom. I believe this still happens today, though it's not so stressed as it was then (we don't have Kings that can kill the translators if they don't do what he says). I believe it leans more towards supporting modern doctrines. All it takes is to change one word... Look at "Holy Ghost". Many people today will say that this is God... they also say that Ghost is Soul.... yet you never see it written "Holy Soul" and God is never spoken of as a Soul, but a Spirit. So how did that word "ghost" get there? ;-)
2007-11-14 07:30:27 · answer #3 · answered by River 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, just get a few bibles and cross reference them and see the difference in the wording! Also in Greek if you capitalize a letter the word takes on a different meaning, that's why their are so many mistakes in the bible. It is the pressure of religion to make the bible say what they want it to say.
2007-11-14 07:04:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Holy Quran is the latest version and a valid Word of God for the humanity. God himself gave warranty for its accuracy till end of the time!
No alteration, no version. Still fresh and accurate!
It is a living book and rightly said to be "Miracle of the Miracles"!
2007-11-14 07:06:40 · answer #5 · answered by aslam09221 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes. And I could not possibly say it any better than DP has. So, rather than giving an answer that sounds like I'm echoing what DP wrote, I'll leave it at that.
2007-11-14 07:10:20 · answer #6 · answered by Michael B - Prop. 8 Repealed! 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-11-14 06:49:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe so.
2007-11-14 06:50:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋