Why is the verse 1 John 5:7 on the Trinity missing in many modern Bible translations?

Question

John declares that " there are three who bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one " ( KJV

This is the clearest statement on the Trinity in the Bible. However, most modern translations omit this verse.Why?

Con...: I am sure this Latin writer had more credentials than NWT tranlators. NWT tranlators had no formal training in Biblical languages

Simply because this verse has no manuscript support does not mean that the doctrine of Trinity is not true.

Line Dancer: So tell me about the credentials of the NWT translators?

Moises_Frias: WT Society claims to be the only true channel of communication between humans and God, that is a LIE.
Why would they do that, maybe control?

Answer 1

There is another verse that states about the same thing that has yet to be attacked by the friends of the adversary.

I am leaving it in context so that is may not be stated it is taken out of context.

Note verse 15...

Hebrews 10:
11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins:
12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.
14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
15 Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before,
16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
17 And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
18 Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.

Answer 2

It goes to the art and science of textual criticism. This does not mean that we criticize it like we would somone who offends us, but that we lok at the hard facts.

(1) The passage is absent from every known Greek manuscript except eight, and these contain the passage in what appears to be a translation from a late recension of the Latin Vulgate. Four of the eight manuscripts contain the passage as a variant reading written in the margin as a later addition to the manuscript.

In other words it was there in the latin Vulgate, and was read back into the eight Greek texts of that time; but those words are not there in the original texts! Sorry, but they just are not original words of the Bible. I wish they were, because that would be a very powerful arguement for the Trinity. But an arguement based on an error is an error. Knowingly using an error is a lie, even if it would yield the result we might want!

(2) The passage is quoted by none of the Greek Fathers, who, had they known it, would most certainly have employed it in the Trinitarian controversies (Sabellian and Arian). Its first appearance in Greek is in a Greek version of the (Latin) Acts of the Lateran Council in 1215.

If it had been in the autograph "original" texts, the early church Fathers would have known and used it, but none did.

(3) The earliest instance of the passage being quoted as a part of the actual text of the Epistle is in a fourth century Latin treatise entitled Liber Apologeticus (chap. 4), attributed either to the Spanish heretic Priscillian (died about 385) or to his follower Bishop Instantius. Apparently the gloss arose when the original passage was understood to symbolize the Trinity (through the mention of three witnesses: the Spirit, the water, and the blood), an interpretation that may have been written first as a marginal note that afterwards found its way into the text. In the fifth century the gloss was quoted by Latin Fathers in North Africa and Italy as part of the text of the Epistle, and from the sixth century onwards it is found more and more frequently in manuscripts of the Old Latin and of the Vulgate. In these various witnesses the wording of the passage differs in several particulars.

There are a few others that fall into this category, but this kind of thing gives unbelievers grounds for carping on the Bible being a pack of lies. We must speak the truth in love, and as true as those words are, they are not part of the autographs as the Word of God was originally given to the church.

Answer 3

Trinity is a manmade doctrine period. The council of Nicea had to decide whether or not Jesus is God..and later on is the Holy Spirit God as well. The Old Testament testified that there is only One God not three in one or one in three or wtvr. They had to get to a decision to retranslate the canons. The monarchy and apostolic church have a lot of influence. They were in power. At that time you either believe what they tell you or die. Many died standing for their faith. But this doctrine survived as we can see now.

Answer 4

If the only choices are between A, B, and C, the answer is C. Translation C more accurately renders the pre-verbal, predicate nominative in John 1:1c. The reason for this is because it is anarthrous, and is qualitative in meaning, in other words representing that the noun functions as a kind of adjective that makes an assertion regarding the nature of the subject in the sentence. Since English doesn't really have an adjectival form of 'God' translation A can be misleading. Translating as "a god" however, also is misleading because it does not adequately represent the qualitative meaning of the Greek here. Worse for choice B, a predicate nominative neither identifies nor describes substance. So, it isn't saying what the Word or Logos is made of and it isn't identifying the Word or Logos as "a god," for rendering it "a god" identifies the Logos or Word as one of "the gods." Since this isn't what a predicate of this nature does, choice C is more accurate to the meaning. But, C also is the best choice out of the three because 'divine' in English is an adjective and the word for 'God' in the Greek predicate there functions as a kind of adjective. Thus, on that ground alone it best represents in English what is there in the Greek, and neither identifies nor describes substance in violation of the predicate there like choice B does. By the way, all this argument over the use of the Sahidic Coptic to 'prove' that the rendering of "a god" is most accurate is nonsense, and very much akin to linguistic root fallacy. Coptic uses the marker to mark anarthrous nouns but does not necessarily mean that it must be rendered as "a" anything in all cases where it is found. It's just a marker of qualitative meaning in many cases. In other words, in Coptic this marker commonly is used to identify qualitative nouns (and we already have seen that the noun in John 1:1c is qualitative and why that is so). Compare this with what is found in 1 John 1:5 and 1 John 4:8 of the Coptic. Both of these situations have within them qualitative nouns which are marked with the Coptic indefinite article. In summation, the underlying, qualitative meaning in John 1:1c is "by nature deity" (which is its qualitative meaning) but since we are only given three choices, the third choice, C. "divine," is the proper answer to the above question, being of the three the closest to the meaning of the underlying Greek there.

Answer 5

Because it doesn't exist in a single Greek manuscript earlier than the 14th century. It was originally a side notation that a German bishop inserted in the margins of his text as part of a sermon he was teaching. That manuscript was copied and the copyist made an error and included that statement in the text. That text was used in the creation of the Textus Receptus Greek New Testament, and the Textus Receptus was used for the King James Version of the Bible. So far, scholars have found about 4,200 errors with the Textus Receptus--that's why no biblical scholar will use a translation based on the Textus Receptus (KJV, New World Translation, and Luther's Bible). The Greek text that is used for modern translations is the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament. As more ancient texts are excavated and discovered, changes are made accordingly by committee. The current edition used is the NA27.

Answer 6

It may first be noted that the words “in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one” (KJ) found in older translations at 1 John 5:7 are actually spurious additions to the original text. A footnote in The Jerusalem Bible, a Catholic translation, says that these words are “not in any of the early Greek MSS [manuscripts], or any of the early translations, or in the best MSS of the Vulg[ate] itself.” A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, by Bruce Metzger (1975, pp. 716-718), traces in detail the history of the spurious passage. It states that the passage is first found in a treatise entitled Liber Apologeticus, of the fourth century, and that it appears in Old Latin and Vulgate manuscripts of the Scriptures, beginning in the sixth century. Modern translations as a whole, both Catholic and Protestant, do not include them in the main body of the text, because of recognizing their spurious nature.—RS, NE, NAB

Answer 7

KJV fanatics seem to always point to that as if that "Authorized" version was error-free...

Although it's quite a nice piece of work because it exposes the language spoken in that period of time, but based off research, it seems notable that it's source for translation was mostly of the Latin Vulgate and not the Greek Manuscripts.

And...when compared to the various more older Greek manuscripts, many secular scholars have seen quite alot of errors (Including 1 John 5:7)

One needs to be sincere when researching and making sure their not clinging on to information that fits there ideas, thats being bias.

Take Care Everybody.

Answer 8

This what your talking about?
Available Translations and Versions for 1Jo 5:7

KJV - 1Jo 5:7 - For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
King James Version 1611, 1769


NKJV - 1Jo 5:7 - For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one.
New King James Version © 1982 Thomas Nelson


NLT - 1Jo 5:7 - So we have these three witnesses-
Footnote:
Some very late manuscripts add in heaven—the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. And we have three witnesses on earth.
New Living Translation © 1996 Tyndale Charitable Trust


NIV - 1Jo 5:7 - For there are three that testify:


Footnote:
Late manuscripts of the Vulgate testify in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. 8 And there are three that testify on earth: the (not found in any Greek manuscript before the sixteenth century)
New International Version © 1973, 1978, 1984 International Bible Society


ESV - 1Jo 5:7 - For there are three that testify:

The Holy Bible, English Standard Version © 2001 Crossway Bibles


NASB - 1Jo 5:7 - For there are three that testify:
New American Standard Bible © 1995 Lockman Foundation


RSV - 1Jo 5:7 - And the Spirit is the witness, because the Spirit is the truth.
Revised Standard Version © 1947, 1952.


ASV - 1Jo 5:7 - And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is the truth.
American Standard Version 1901 Info


Young - 1Jo 5:7 - because three are who are testifying [in the heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these -- the three -- are one;
Robert Young Literal Translation 1862, 1887, 1898 Info


Darby - 1Jo 5:7 - For they that bear witness are three:
J.N.Darby Translation 1890 Info


Webster - 1Jo 5:7 - For there are three that bear testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one.
Noah Webster Version 1833 Info


HNV - 1Jo 5:7 - For there are three who testify:
Hebrew Names Version 2000 Info


Vulgate - 1Jo 5:7 - quia tres sunt qui testimonium dant

Answer 9

Eph 1:10, " That in the dispensation of the fulness of timeSSS he might GATHER TOGETHER IN ONE all things in Christ, both which are in HEAVEN, and which are on EARTH; even in him".

There are 3 dispensations of time which bear record in heaven; of Him who WAS, and IS, and SHALL FOREVER BE. He is the Father in Spirit, the Word in body, and the Holy Spirit in us today. This is the record of ONE person who is the embodiment of the Father and the Holy Spirit. This ONE person is the WORD made flesh and JESUS is His name.

Zechariah 14:9, "And the Lord shall be King over all the earth: in that day shall there be ONE Lord, AND HIS NAME SHALL BE ONE". Ephesians 1:21, "Far above ALL principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and EVERY NAME THAT IS NAMED, not only in this world, but ALSO IN THAT WHICH IS TO COME:" John 14:23, Jesus said, "If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him".

John 4:24, Jesus said, "God is a Spirit".

Colossians 1:15, speaking of the Son, "Who is the image of the INVISIBLE God".

Colossians 2:9, speaking of Christ, "For IN HIM dwelleth ALL THE FULLNESS OF THE GODHEAD bodily". Does this leave any other part of the Godhead to exist?

When Philip asked Jesus to show them the Father, Jesus answered, "Have I been so long time with you, and yet, hast thou not known ME".

The Word, which became flesh, is the temple/body for the fulness of God, the Spirit. Jesus is the ONE, who sits upon the throne, singular. Whoever places the seed within the mother's womb, is the child's father, thus God, the Spirit, is the Father of the Word, made flesh. This is why Jesus could say, "If I WITH THE FINGER OF GOD, cast out devils"; His finger is God's finger, because His body is the INVISIBLE God's body.

Those who believe in the triune God say, it can not be explained, but Romans 1:20, says they are without excuse for not understanding and "clearly" seeing the Godhead, because he has shown it to us through his creation; man. Man is both body and spirit; Zechariah 12:1, "...saith the Lord, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, AND FORMETH THE SPIRIT OF MAN WITHIN HIM". This recounts the creation; first, the heavens, then the earth, and last, man. This says God formed the spirit of man WITHIN HIM. We are a two-fold being, body and spirit, just like the Godhead. Genesis 1:26, "...Let us make man in our IMAGE, after our LIKENESS"; image & likeness have 2 different meanings.
According to Strong's Hebrew Dictionary, image means phantom or illusion, but likeness means shape or model.

2nd Corinthians 4:16, "...though our OUTWARD man perish, yet the INWARD man is renewed day by day".

2nd Corinthians 12:1-5, Paul repeats "...whether IN THE BODY, I cannot tell; or whether OUT OF THE BODY, I cannot tell; GOD KNOWETH".

Romans 1:20, says if a trinity exists, it can be clearly seen and understood through God's creation, so show me the trinity in creation.

Answer 10

As shown from older manuscripts, words have been added to 1 John 5:7
They are in the Textus Receptus, but not other, older manuscripts such as the Vatan Codex 1209

brb with more

I'm back and here is a small article:

Any Proof of the Trinity in 1 John 5:7, 8?

LONG have Bible scholars questioned the authenticity of certain words found at 1 John 5:7, 8. But since these words do appear in the Textus Receptus (“Received Text”), they are found in the King James, the Douay and other versions. As increasing evidence proved the words spurious, however, those believing in the Trinity seem to have taken a delaying action against expunging them from Bible translations.

For example, the noted English Roman Catholic Bible scholar Monsignor Knox has a footnote in his translation (1944) saying: “This verse does not occur in any good Greek manuscript. But the Latin versions may have preserved the true text.” And in its main text the Catholic Confraternity translation (1941) reads: “For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness on earth: the Spirit, and the water, and the blood; and these three are one.” In a footnote, this translation states: “According to the evidence of many manuscripts, and the majority of commentators, these verses should read: ‘And there are three who give testimony, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood; and these three are one.’” Nevertheless, the footnote adds: “The Holy See reserves to itself the right to pass finally on the origin of the present reading.”

A Catholic Commentary on Holy Scripture (1953) presumes to explain how the Father, the Word (Jesus) and the Holy Spirit all give testimony to Christ’s divinity. Then, in explanation of the words “and these three are one,” this work states that they “have one identical nature.” However, it then refers to another page (which most readers probably would not consult). There one finds an admission that this passage now is generally held to be a gloss that crept into the Old Latin, Vulgate and Greek manuscripts. Since that is true, why attempt to explain it?

In contrast is the footnote appearing in The Jerusalem Bible (1966), which does not have the added words in the main text. It states: “Vulg[ate] vv.7-8 read as follows ‘There are three witnesses in heaven: the Father the Word and the Spirit, and these three are one; there are three witnesses on earth: the Spirit the water and the blood’. The words in italics (not in any of the early Greek MSS, or any of the early translations, or in the best MSS of the Vulg. itself) are probably a gloss that has crept into the text.”

Significantly, the spurious words in question are not found in the latest Roman Catholic translation in English, The New American Bible. But, how did they creep into Bible manuscripts? Likely, an over-zealous copyist deliberately inserted this statement so as to support the Trinity teaching. Yet, there is no proof of that false doctrine here or elsewhere in the Holy Scriptures