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just the definition please.very urgent please.

2006-12-20 02:12:19 · 6 answers · asked by Nandu 1 in Health Diseases & Conditions Diabetes

6 answers

By the 10th Revision of the WHO International Statistical Classification of Diseases, Injuries and Causes of Death, low vision is defined as visual acuity of less than 6/18, but equal to or better than 3/60, or corresponding visual field loss to less than 20 degrees, in the better eye with best possible correction. Blindness is defined as visual acuity of less than 3/60, or corresponding visual field loss to less than 10 degrees, in the better eye with best possible correction.
Diabetic retinopathy includes microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, and macular edema occurring with diabetes of at least several years' duration. Vision rarely decreases until late in the disease. Diagnosis is by funduscopy; further details are elucidated by fluorescein angiography. Treatment includes controlling diabetes and laser coagulation of threatening lesions.
Please see the web pages for more details on Blindness and Diabetic retinopathy.

2006-12-20 04:29:10 · answer #1 · answered by gangadharan nair 7 · 0 0

Partial Blindness

2016-10-31 08:46:35 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

1. Ask a doctor he/she told you so in the first place. If he/she did then ask him or her what did he/she meant by it, many meaning you may have multiple but partial problem.

Legally blind one eye only means the vison is less then 20/200 in any eye, if both, it will be totally Legally blind. In USA you get extra exemption on the taxes they give you a tax break.

2. When blindness come and goes then also you are partially blind. Some people are blinded by day light or a strong light, that is also one kind of partial blindness. Some people are blind during night time or during day time depending on an amount of light they need more then strong light to see, that is also one kind of partial blindness.

2006-12-20 03:19:39 · answer #3 · answered by minootoo 7 · 0 0

partial blindness is when your vision is between 20/60 and 20/100. it could also mean seeing very little out of one eye. its different from being legally blind (which i am) which is from 20/200 or worse. take it easy!

2006-12-20 10:39:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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It depends on the exact nature of his partial blindness. If he is severely farsighted- probably yes. If he has advanced glaucoma - probably no. If he has no periferal vision most definitely not. If his vision loss is in one eye only - probably yes

2016-04-03 23:32:25 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

not to answer the question with the question but its just partial blindness.

2006-12-20 06:33:39 · answer #6 · answered by BAR 4 · 0 0

partial lapse in sight, you can see still but are still considered legally blind

2006-12-20 02:16:29 · answer #7 · answered by batts1030 2 · 0 0

You are not blind but nearly there. Your vision is hard to affect with glasses but you can see most things.

2006-12-20 02:15:33 · answer #8 · answered by Becky!! 2 · 0 0

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RE:
What is partial blindness?
just the definition please.very urgent please.

2015-08-18 19:58:09 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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