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Why is it that every scripture I look up in my bible that I got when I was a catholic or any bible I find at a store or on line and the bible I have from them say the same thing..........Here are a few off the wall examples.............


Rev 6:1
Now I saw when the Lamb opened one of the seals; and I heard one of the four living creatures saying with a voice like thunder, “Come and see.”

JW BIBLE
And I saw when the Lamb opened one of the seven seals, and I heard one of the four living creatures say with a voice as of thunder: “Come!”

Rev 7:9
After these things I looked, and behold, a great multitude which no one could number, of all nations, tribes, peoples, and tongues, standing before the throne and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes, with palm branches in their hands,


JW BIBLE
9 After these things I saw, and, look! a great crowd, which no man was able to number, out of all nations and tribes and peoples and tongues, standing before the throne and before the

2007-12-27 14:57:32 · 11 answers · asked by Kitty Kat 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Any one can get any bible and it all reads the same ......I think we all need to realize we are all reading the same thing nothing new or crazy about it we can change what we like in it but Gods message is still the same and that is power.........Just my point of view

2007-12-27 14:59:57 · update #1

After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, which no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues, stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes, and palms in their hands;

2007-12-27 15:03:05 · update #2

well in fact CVO they do believe Jesus is the son of God.

2007-12-27 23:47:38 · update #3

11 answers

Who cares what translation, if we can only agree in love your God with all your soul body and spirit and your neighbour as yourself. VERY SIMPLE

2007-12-27 15:56:52 · answer #1 · answered by Antonio G 1 · 2 0

Kitty there are those people who swear by the KJV as if it were the Original text written by Moses and others. That Bible had the " Old" English which has since been outdated. I want a Bible that shows clarity and one that shows how they arrived at certain texts and what was the Reason for such. For Instance the supposed account of jesus saying " those without Sin cast the First stone" that line is NOT found in ANY of the Oldest Manuscripts. I refuse to be duped by versions that want to add color to accounts Jesus did not speak.

The person below me is another of those who does not know what they talking about. Jehovah's Witnesses recognize that without the Ransom of Christ Blood, all is Lost. She needs a Bible Study with the Witnesses to clear away the cobwebs of her error laden mind.

2007-12-27 23:08:37 · answer #2 · answered by conundrum 7 · 7 2

Most who say that have never even opened the NWT for themselves.

I always tell people in the ministry to bring out their own Bibles and I continue whatever I was saying using their Bible. That way you fish out those who really distrust the translation from those who just don't want to continue the discussion.

Also, where I live, the first Jehovah's Witness (then Bible Student) came here from Poland in 1891. The complete NWT was released in the local language only in June 2007. There have been thousands of JWs in the country in that period of 116 years- what have we been using to preach???

Other translations- the message is the same!!!

2007-12-27 23:05:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 7 2

The New World Translation renders the Greek term word "staurós" ("cross") as "torture stake" because Jehovah’s Witnesses do not believe that Jesus was crucified on a cross. The New World Translation does not translate the Greek words “sheol,” "hades,” "gehenna," and "tartarus," as "hell” because Jehovah’s Witnesses do not believe in hell. The NWT gives the translation "presence" instead of “coming” for the Greek word “parousia” because JW’s believe that Christ has already returned in the early 1900’s). In Colossians 1:16, the NWT inserts the word “other” despite it being completely absent from the original Greek text. It does this to give the view that “all other things” were created by Christ, instead of what the text says, “all things were created by Christ.”

The most well known of all the New World Translation perversions is John 1:1. The original Greek text reads, “the Word was God.” The NWT renders it has “the word was a god.” This is not a matter of correct translation, but of reading one's preconceived theology into the text, rather than allowing the text to speak for itself.

There is no indefinite article in Greek (in English - "a" or "an"). So any use of an indefinite article in the English translation must be added in by the translator. This is grammatically acceptable in English, so long as it does not change the meaning of the text.

There is a perfectly good explanation for why "theos" has no definite article in John 1:1 that does not result in the New World Translation rendering. There are three general rules we need to understand to see why:

1. In Greek, word order does not determine word usage like it does in English. In English, a sentence is structured according to word order: Subject - Verb - Predicate. Thus, "Harry called the dog" is not equivalent to, "The dog called Harry." But in Greek, a word's function is determined by the case ending found attached to the word's root. In this verse, there are two case endings for the root "theo" . . . one is "s" (theos), the other is "n" (theon). The "s" ending normally identifies a noun as being the subject of a sentence, while the "n" ending normally identifies a noun as the direct object.

2. When a noun is functioning as a predicate nominative (in English a noun that follows a "being" verb such as "is") its case ending must match the noun's case that it modifies, so that the reader will know which noun it is describing. Therefore, "theo" must take the "s" ending because it is modifying "logos." Therefore, John 1:1 transliterates to: "kai theos en ho logos." Is "theos" the subject or is "logos"? Both have the "s" ending. The answer is found in the next rule.

3. In cases where two nouns appear, and both take the same case endings, the author will often add the definite article to the word that is the subject in order to avoid confusion. John put the definite article on "logos" (the Word) instead of "theos." So "logos" is the subject, and "theos" is the predicate nominative. In English, this results in John 1:1 being read as: "and the Word was God," (instead of "and God was the word").

The most revealing evidence of the Watchtower's bias is their inconsistent translation technique. Throughout the Gospel of John, the Greek word “theon” occurs without a definite article. The New World Translation renders none of these occurrence as “a god.” Just 3 verses after John 1:1, the New World Translation translates another case of "theos" without the indefinite article as "God." Even more inconsistent, in John 1:18, the NWT translates the same term as both "God" and "god" in the very same sentence.

2007-12-27 23:05:29 · answer #4 · answered by Freedom 7 · 2 6

You have not mentioned the subtle changes JW's make to the Bible which significantly change the meaning of the verse, eg:
John 8:58 - 'I am' changed to 'I have been'.
John 10:38 - The words 'union with' added twice.
John 17:3 - 'Know thee' changed to 'taking in knowledge of thee'
John 15:4, 5, 6, 7 - The words 'union with' added 7 times.
1Cor. 10:4 - The word 'was' changed to 'meant'.
2Cor. 5:19 - God 'was in Christ' changed to 'God was by means of Christ'.

2007-12-27 23:17:21 · answer #5 · answered by cheir 7 · 2 2

Because the majority of Christendom know that we use the same Bible.....the Holy Bible in a new english translation.
But it's easier for them in Christendom to spread lies about Jehovah's Witnesses to try and make us look bad.
The truth always prevails.

2007-12-27 23:11:29 · answer #6 · answered by sugarbee 7 · 4 2

I have Bibles in 4 different languages and only my English ones are NWT. When I compare the different languages, they are pretty exact. :)

2007-12-27 23:04:42 · answer #7 · answered by aseptic technique 5 · 7 1

They don't believe Jesus is the son of God. Christian bibles say Jesus is the son of God (i.e., Mark 1:1). They can't possibly read the same, or they choose not to believe what they are reading.

2007-12-27 23:09:23 · answer #8 · answered by Carol 4 · 1 5

keep reading. Start with John 1:1 and go on.

They changed all essential Christian Doctrine equating Christ and his claim to be The I AM.

2007-12-28 00:16:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

That is the weak excuse from people that have nothing to argument and no valid reasoning.

Cause we take their own bible and show exactly the same we believe within.

2007-12-27 23:00:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 8 4

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