in he imperfect mode? For example...if you translate it literally it would say "and Strong Ones (Elohim) will say let there be light and Strong Ones (Elohim) will divide the light from the darknes"...and so on. Why is this? Is there an English Bible version that translates in this manner? I have not ever seen this until I started learning Biblical Hebrew for myself and discovered this in a translation assignment of Genesis chapter 1. Any insight on this?
I won't dare post this in the Religion section....I won't get one good answer and most people will think I am making this all up.
2007-12-27 14:12:31 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
The vav infront of the vowels makes adds the "and". The yodh makes the verbs imperfect.
2007-12-27 14:20:30 · update #1
A good example of the "Perfect state" verb would be "bara" in Gen. 1:1...it is a Qal, perfect, 3ms. Many of the other verbs in Chapter 1 have the yodh prefixed to it making them imperfect.
2007-12-27 14:22:51 · update #2
idk the answer to your question, but I want to thank-you for asking it anyway. I find this info very interesting, and I hope you will do some more along this line.
I Cr 13;8a
2007-12-27 21:30:03 · answer #1 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
As you have noticed, Elohim definitely contains a plural connotation, which is very consistent with the early polytheistic religious system which gave rise to the Jewish religion we know today. It seems that though God the Father (El was His name is the Canaanite pantheon) might have gotten all the credit for Creation, He did not necessarily act alone in carrying out all aspects of the creative act itself.
As the Bible continues and the Jewish belief system takes over, the way in which God is referred to will shift to a more uniquely monotheistic manner. There are two possible reasons for this, as I see it. One, it may be that the Jewish High Priests grew tired and frustrated with Israel's continued problem with the worship of other Gods and forced a more monotheistic view onto Judaism simply to preserve the purity of their religion. Two, it may be that as God revealed more of Himself through the prophets that polytheism was simply left behind as an unwanted relic of their past. Either way, it left a confusing message behind in the words of the Old Testament.
I am not aware of any english Bible preserving the wording as you have found it in the Hebrew, mostly I'm sure due to the confusion it would undoubtedly cause.
If you would like to learn more, I recommend "The Early History of God" & "The Origins of Monotheism" both are by Mark Smith and are excellent reading.
I hope this answer helps!
2007-12-27 14:30:35 · answer #2 · answered by ? 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You know how in English there are some irregular words like Deer and Fish that are written in what is normally singular but can in fact connote plural? So in Hebrew the word Elohim is among several irregular words, that are in fact singular in their meaning, but are written as plural. Also the Vav in the begining of Va yomer, is the Vav Hamehapechet (The Vav of Reversal) which changes the tense, in this case future or imperfect if you want to call it, to past or perfect. So the correct reading is: And G-d said, "let there be light", and there was light.
2016-06-02 13:15:00 · answer #3 · answered by joey 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure in what sense you think the verbs are in the imperfect -- the word for "let there be" is "yehi" and the "divide" word is "vayavdel" -- and he divided. the "vav hamehapechet" in that case changes the tense.
2007-12-27 14:17:38 · answer #4 · answered by rosends 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋