2007-12-27 09:04:45 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
"if you really want the best answer , Why not ask God this question ?"
mainly...because he doesnt exist
2007-12-27 09:08:58 · update #1
some of you christians don't know much about the birds and the bees
2007-12-27 09:16:59 · update #2
Nobody's. The Hebrew word in the Bible that was translated as "virgin" would be more accurately translated to mean :young girl," referring to the fact that Mary married Joseph at the age of thirteen or fourteen. No where in the original Bible does it say that Jesus was born of a virgin. The whole idea of the Immaculate Conception is only inferred from these poorly translated texts.
2007-12-27 09:09:51 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
God said so HUNDREDS of years (a THOUSAND years? before Jesus was born in the famous Isaiah prophecy.
Why do you think that Mary was the first girl who ever got pregnant before marriage? Why didn't Sally write about it, or Sarah, or Susan? Think about it - if it was NOT a miracle, then Joseph was right in wanting to deal with it privately, and yet it's being announced abroad so that ALL know the story!
It doesn't seem reasonable to assume that of all the girls that ever got pregnant, anyone would bother writing about THIS one in particular, unless it DID have some kind of significance. Otherwise, why bring it to ANY body's attention? That may be today's society, but back then, the best plan would have been to just keep it quiet!
The very fact that it WAS recorded for ALL posterity to read about is demonstration enough that it was, in fact, as the Bible says - a miracle from God!
2007-12-27 17:12:02 · answer #2 · answered by no1home2day 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
As far as documentation goes, we have the Gospel According to Matthew (circa AD 75) and the Gospel According to Luke (circa AD 80). Both of these documents seem to independently draw on a tradition which espoused the virginal conception of Jesus of Nazareth. Matthew's inclusion of four women of dubious sexual integrity in his genealogy (Tamar, Rahab, Ruth, and Bathsheba; Matthew 1:1-17) indicates that he was aware that some of his readers would find the story difficult to accept and he thus provided them with a 'plan B': "This is how it happened, but if you simply can't accept that, please, don’t put the book down just yet; bear in mind that God has worked through some less-than-chaste women in the past."
Matthew's inclusion of this episode despite his awareness of its likely ambiguous reception indicates that he did not invent the story but rather felt compelled to include it as part of the larger Jesus narrative. The most reasonable explanation for this is that the tradition of the virgin birth was already old and fairly widespread by the time the Gospel According to Matthew acquired its final form-- pushing it even closer to the event that it describes.
2007-12-27 17:51:24 · answer #3 · answered by Pastor Eugene Curry 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well the actual translation of virgin in the Hebrew bible is actually "a young women" Though who's to say that after she had Jesus she did not have other children. She was not a virgin all of her life.
I suppose once you review all of the historical facts and what one would believe in their faith. That is how you would determine if Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus or not.
2007-12-27 17:39:12 · answer #4 · answered by Tohru ♥ Kyo 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Holy Spirit's word who inspired Luke and Mathew to write about Jesus' birth. For me, is more than enough.
Mathew walked with Jesus who confirmed to Him what Mathew eventually wrote in the Gospel. He also, knew Mary during Jesus ministry and after the resurrection.
Luke who traveled with Paul between the churches, and while Paul was arrested in Jerusalem had plenty of time to interview the apostles, other witnesses and Mary which was taking care of by John.
2007-12-27 17:13:31 · answer #5 · answered by Darth Eugene Vader 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
You have my word that I never slept with Mary. To my knowledge she is a virgin.
Does that help?
Actually, the powers that be made up the "Virgin" story in the bible (aka LIEble) to hide the fact that she was an adulterer. It's easier to say the Jesus was a immaculate conception rather than the product of a cheating wife. Think about it people!!!
2007-12-27 17:10:01 · answer #6 · answered by thorno74 3 · 2⤊ 2⤋
It was her word..and Josephs
Joseph may have really had love for her and didn't want to see her be stoned for committing adultery, so he made up a story about and angel coming and telling him that this child was the son of god, thus she had to teach Jesus from a young age that he was the son of god or the lie wouldn't work..and since children are susceptible to many beliefs at a young age he may have really thought he was the son of god...
2007-12-27 17:10:10 · answer #7 · answered by Paul B 2 · 2⤊ 2⤋
We have God's word. The Bible is his inspired and infallible word, therefore that statement that Mary is was a virgin is part of that infallible word and believed without question.
2007-12-27 17:12:29 · answer #8 · answered by Misty 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Gods, in the bible God says, " All scripture is inspired by God." Timothy 3:16
2007-12-27 17:08:21 · answer #9 · answered by get_r_done944 1 · 3⤊ 1⤋
God's Word, in the prophecy of Isaiah, and the testimony of the Gospels and Epistles.
That's at least 7 testimonies.
How many do you need?
2007-12-27 17:08:13 · answer #10 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 5⤊ 1⤋