Now I was on a forum and a guy stated that the Bible states the men can have more than one wife. This is exactly what he stated: "The bible also says a man can take many women but a women may only have one man". When prompted for a verse where it states that in the Bible he provided Deuteronomy 21:15. I read that verse and from what I understood from it, it doesn't state that men can have more than one wife. So is this guy just full of it, or what?
Thx for your mature answers in advance, because I know that there is an immature person that lurks around in here.
2007-12-27 08:31:38 · 32 answers · asked by rosezz50 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Deuteronomy 21:15-17 (RV) says, "If a man have two wives, the one beloved, and the other hated, and they have borne him children, both the beloved and the hated; and if the firstborn son be hers that was hated; (16) then it shall be, in the day that he causeth his sons to inherit that which he hath, that he may not make the son of the beloved the firstborn before the son of the hated, which is the firstborn: (17) but he shall acknowledge the firstborn, the son of the hated, by giving him a double portion of all that he hath: for he is the beginning of his strength; the right of the firstborn is his."
This is not saying a man may have more than one wife. It's saying that if a man DOES have more than wife, he has to treat all his children fairly and not favor the children of one wife over the children of the other.
Furthermore, it says nothing at all about how many husbands a woman may have.
I trust that what Jesus said was best, when he quoted God from the beginning, that "A man shall leave his father and his mother and cleave to his wife." - the implication is "ONE and ONLY wife".
2007-12-27 08:37:10 · answer #1 · answered by no1home2day 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It says if a man was married twice and he loves his second wife more than his first he cannot give preferential treatment to the second son in place of the first. He must give the firstborn as much as the second and not treat him unfairly because he is the son of a wife the man does not love. That's what Deuteronomy 21:15 says but you also have the remember Deuteronomy has a lot of old school information that really isn't used anymore. This is the same book that says women aren't allowed to cut their hair, don't wear blended clothing and don't eat vegetation that was grown on the same ground as other vegetation. It really pertains to the distant past.
2007-12-27 08:38:41 · answer #2 · answered by Kristina 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The scripture no where states that a man can only have one wife however it is suggested that a man have only one wife
It is true that the requirements for a congregational leader is that he be the husband of one wife but again that does not exclude having more than one.
It is true that the torah covers instances where a man has more than one wife and it may well be as someone has suggested here that it was because of divorce however that is not spelled out in this passage so we have to discard that as just a possibility and not a "truth"
Taking this passage at its face value and along with all the passages of men practing Polygamy in the scripture we have to assume it is speaking of concurrent wives because we have many examples of the same. What this passage is addressing is not how many wives a man may have but how to treat the children of the same to make sure there is equal and fair treatment of both womens children.
There are other passages that make sure a man treats both his wives fairly.
A wiser man than I once told me. Since the scripture indicates that a man may have more than one wife a man should be able to have as many wives as he can afford.
I don't know about the rest of you but so far... I can barely afford the one I have. I'm still trying to learn how to live with this one with understanding. I'm just not ready for a second wife.
Oh I know the women on the forum are going to thumbs down me but I'm only answering true. Most of you gave a totally emotional responses and obviously don't know what the scripture says on the subject. I read a lot of wild conjecture and hype but most of it was as empty of reason as air.
2007-12-27 08:58:47 · answer #3 · answered by Tzadiq 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Actually, Deut. 21 verses 10 thru 17 are a better answer. The qualifier is in verse 10...When you go to war and the LORD Your GOD delivers your enemies to you,...so then (1 ) war (2) you must serve with the armed force and(3) GOD provides victory to your forces! Leaving out one step can void the whole Blessing! Note: Women were not any part of forces gathering under GOD's banner. When the qualifier provisions are in place then read the remaining verses. sub-note ; first month she must be celibate, shorn (bald), and no long nails ...immediately prior to the wedding, although she may live under His roof and has his protection same as any member ...since he has saved her from death she must never be treated as a slave by anyone in his household once wed!
Marrying a family widow was for her benefit!
2007-12-27 09:18:32 · answer #4 · answered by K9 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No the verse does not justify men having more than one wife. You have to understand the culture at that time. It was common for men to have more than one wife, but it was not in God's original plan for this. This verse is making a point about Moses recognizing the rights of the first-born. So if a man had two wives (one he loves and the other he hates), the husband could not give preference to the son of the wife he loved over the natural inheritance of the son of the one he hated. God bless
2007-12-27 08:42:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
this is an interesting bible verse and i'm not a pastor or scholar but i believe that verses are to be interpreted by the reader or by someone who has spent years studying the bible. it sounds like the guy you talked to wanted to use a bible verse to prove his point instead of reading and learning from the story. you should read the entire story and take your own interpretation. i think it's open for debate and personally, i believe the story isn't about how many wives you can have, but how to treat the children from the wives fairly.
2007-12-27 08:37:46 · answer #6 · answered by tobysmomanddad 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Polygamy was common practice in Old Testament times. Many of the most prominent prophets in the Bible were polygamists (Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David, Solomon, etc). Polygamy was not frowned upon by God in Bible times.
This verse (Deut 21:15) shows that the practice was common in that time.
2007-12-27 08:38:00 · answer #7 · answered by Open Heart Searchery 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I'm not a Christian but I know the Bible. It does not prevent multiple marriages, but it indicates that it is looked down on. 1 Tim 3:2 say that a man of responsibility in the church must be above reproach having only one wife.
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;"
2007-12-27 08:36:47 · answer #8 · answered by CB 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
He was probably relying on the fact that in the OT, there were some men who did have more than one wife. Thankfully, we live in modern times where you can only have 1 wife and 1 husband!
2007-12-27 08:35:16 · answer #9 · answered by Scooterette1! 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Ok- Deut is part of the "Law" given to Moses for the Israelites through revelation. That being said , God was speaking to a people group that was purely pagan and telling them how to live- going forward. He never said "You should have more than one wife" He said "If a man has more than one wife" because that practice was already long established.
2007-12-27 08:39:48 · answer #10 · answered by Devoted 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋