Why does my KJV, 1 John 5:7-8 have an added scripture versus all other translations?

Question

KJV
6) ...And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth.
7) For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
8) And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

NIV
7) For there are three that testify: 8) the Spirit, the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement.

American Standard
7 And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is the truth.
8 For there are three who bear witness, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and the three agree in one.

New Living Translation
7 So we have these three witnesses[c]—8 the Spirit, the water, and the blood—and all three agree.

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20John%205%20;&version=51;

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Thank you
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Answer 1

God inspired the original manuscript not all the subsequent translations. The has been carefully translated and preserved yet the closer you are to the original work the better. The New Testament of the KJV traslation goes like this:
Greek/Aramaic -> Latin -> English

And the OT something like:
Hebrew -> Greek -> Latin -> English

Many of your other translation go back to the oldest manuscripts so Hebrew -> English for the OT and Greek -> English for the new.

This is why it is important to know something about the translations and when and how they were translated.

Answer 2

Because the other translators have decided to ignore the evidence when comparing manuscripts that they have used to render that passage as they guess that it was originally written. Here's a section of an article defending it's inclusion.

http://www.studytoanswer.net/bibleversions/1john5n7.html

Even more to the point is the testimony of Jerome on this matter. Jerome was commissioned by Damasus, the bishop of Rome, to prepare a standard Latin translation of the Holy Scriptures to replace the former Latin translation which had grown in multiplicity by the late 4th century. Jerome did this, utilising the Greek as his source for revision of the Latin New Testament for his Vulgate. At one point in his work, Jerome noted that the trinitarian reading of I John 5:7 was being removed from Greek manuscripts which he had come across, a point which he specifically mentions. Speaking of the testimony of these verses he writes,

"Irresponsible translators left out this testimony in the Greek codices."15

Thus, we see that Jerome specifically mentioned that this verse was being removed from Greek manuscripts in his day. Logically, we can suppose that for him to recognise the absence of this verse as an omission from the Greek texts, he must have been aware of Greek manuscripts which contained the Comma in the time of his preparation of the Vulgate (395-400 AD), a time much earlier than is suggested by the dating of currently known Comma-containing Greek mss.

Answer 3

This is another example of the 20,000 known mistakes in the KJV.

In 1611 there were only 8 manuscripts, oldest dating back to 800 AD

To day we have 1000's of older manuscripts, some dating back 200 yrs before Christ.

Per Jason BeDuhn, the NWT is the best, most accurate Bible available today.

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Answer 4

It wasn t added. Later translators mutilated verses 1 John 5:7 and 5:8. God created man in His image and in His likeness. Man is a triune being: body, soul, and spirit; created in the likeness of God the trinity. Ask yourself, "Who would want to destroy the Holy Trinity?"

Answer 5

You will find notes about the missing verses / words in the other translations if you have a Bible with footnotes or column notes.

Answer 6

it's not different. It's just that in the original language, the second part of vs. 7 is implied in the first part. It doesn't change the meaning one bit.

Answer 7

I would assume it was due to multiple translations, and people adding things as they re-wrote it.

Answer 8

bible isn't holy as the christians defended.