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2007-12-21 11:42:23 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

5 answers

I believe that God is impartial in that He doesn't favor people because they are wealthy or powerful or attractive or something like that. But "unbiased"? I don't know. It sounds like God chooses to save some people and not others based upon what He wants to do to me.

Ephesians 1:3 Praise be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in the heavenly realms with every spiritual blessing in Christ. 4 For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love 5 he predestined us to be adopted as his sons through Jesus Christ, in accordance with his pleasure and will 6 to the praise of his glorious grace, which he has freely given us in the One he loves.

7 In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, in accordance with the riches of God's grace 8 that he lavished on us with all wisdom and understanding. 9 And he made known to us the mystery of his will according to his good pleasure, which he purposed in Christ, 10 to be put into effect when the times will have reached their fulfillmentto bring all things in heaven and on earth together under one head, even Christ.

11 In him we were also chosen, having been predestined according to the plan of him who works out everything in conformity with the purpose of his will, 12 in order that we, who were the first to hope in Christ, might be for the praise of his glory.

Romans 9:11 Yet, before the twins were born or had done anything good or bad in order that God's purpose in election might stand: 12 not by works but by him who callsshe was told, "The older will serve the younger." 13 Just as it is written: "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated."

14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all! 15 For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion."

16 It does not, therefore, depend on man's desire or effort, but on God's mercy. 17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh: "I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth." 18 Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden.

19 One of you will say to me: "Then why does God still blame us? For who resists his will?" 20 But who are you, O man, to talk back to God? "Shall what is formed say to him who formed it, 'Why did you make me like this?'" 21 Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for noble purposes and some for common use?

22 What if God, choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrathprepared for destruction? 23 What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory 24 even us, whom he also called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles?

2007-12-21 13:03:25 · answer #1 · answered by Martin S 7 · 0 0

Good question. First of all. He's God. if He is biased, it's His prerogative.
I think He is biased in some things. He can't be part of any sin, so he's is biased against sin. Since he's biased against sin, you could say that when He judges, His verdict goes against the sinner.
He is not biased in the fact that He loves everybody.

2007-12-21 11:56:07 · answer #2 · answered by Jeff M 5 · 0 1

Apparently not, since god hates Jews, f*gs, America, Sweden, pork and practically the rest of his creation.

2007-12-21 11:47:41 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Not according to some people. Chosen people, chosen country (or is it favourite country) etc...

2007-12-21 11:50:30 · answer #4 · answered by didi 5 · 0 0

No. He only wants those who fall at his feet and worship him.

2007-12-21 11:46:52 · answer #5 · answered by wildfire6460 3 · 0 1

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