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HELL:the word is found in many translation. In the same verses other translations read 'the grave" "the world of the dead,"and so forth. Other bible transliterate the original- language words that are sometimes rendered ,"hell": that is ,they express them with the letters of our alphabet but leave the words untranslated.Those words are Hebrew [she"ohl'] and the Greek equivalant [ hai' des], which refer not to an individual burial place,but to the common grave of dead mankind;
Eccl.9:5,10 --Ps.146:4--
Job asks for hell to protect him[Job:14:13]

2007-12-21 11:56:40 · answer #1 · answered by oatesmokid 4 · 7 0

There is no fiery hell of torment. The word hell has been translated from the words Sheol (Hebrew) and Hades (Greek), which simply mean the common grave of mankind and in which we are not concious (awaiting the resurrection (2 Timothy 2:18)). The word Gehenna which was a fire dump outside the city Jerusalem, that was kept burning with sulphur and brimstone, and which 'symbolised' eternal death (ie non existence). And then there is Tartarus, which is a prison for some of the Demons that sinned before, who are being reserved for judgement, and whom which I think that you're refering to (2 Peter 2:4, 1 Peter 3:19-20). Tartarus though is something to do with some of the demons (fallen angels (Genesis 6:2)), and not with us humans.

2 Peter 2:4
Certainly if God did not hold back from punishing the angels that sinned, but, by throwing them into Tartarus, delivered them to pits of dense darkness to be reserved for judgment;

Genesis 6:2
then the sons of the [true] God began to notice the daughters of men, that they were good-looking; and they went taking wives for themselves, namely, all whom they chose.

1 Peter 3:19-20
In this [state] also he went his way and preached to the spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days, while the ark was being constructed, in which a few people, that is, eight souls, were carried safely through the water.

2 Timothy 2:18
These very [men] have deviated from the truth, saying that the resurrection has already occurred; and they are subverting the faith of some.

2007-12-22 03:43:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

There are several Greek words that are translated 'hell'. One of them referred to the dump outside of Jeruseleum (where the garbage was burnt), one of them referred to the grave. Hades was a Greek concept that you have probably studied in the mythology unit of your high school English literature class. If I remember correctly Acts 2:31 is the one that can also be translated as 'the grave', but I don't have my Greek concordance here to check that.

2007-12-21 19:55:32 · answer #3 · answered by Truth 7 · 2 0

No Jesus is the Messiah, he went down there busted through the gates and took the key. Saving billions of souls

2007-12-21 20:48:08 · answer #4 · answered by Hitch1094 2 · 0 2

No. Jesus was no different than any other man, woman or child on earth.
When he died, he was unconscious of anything.
Ecclesiastes 9:5, 10

2007-12-21 23:30:48 · answer #5 · answered by Here I Am 7 · 3 0

Jesus did NOT go to hell. That is Catholic dogma, not biblical doctrine.

Excerpt from:

Did Jesus Go to Hell? Did He Preach to Spirits in Prison?
by Dave Miller, Ph.D.

A significant misconception that has prevailed through the centuries within Christendom has been the idea that Jesus went to hell after His crucifixion, prior to His resurrection. The creedal statements of historic Christianity are largely responsible for generating this notion. For example, the Apostles’ Creed affirmed belief in Jesus on the following terms: “Who was conceived by the Holy Ghost, born of the Virgin Mary, suffered under Pontius Pilate, was crucified, died, and buried; He descended into hell, the third day He rose again from the dead” (emp. added). The Athanasian Creed states: “He suffered death for our salvation. He descended into hell and rose again from the dead” (emp. added). “Church Fathers” and Reformers toyed with this viewpoint. John Calvin, in his voluminous Institutes of the Christian Religion, treated the subject at length (1599, II.16.8-12). Calvin cited earlier theologians who agreed with him, including Hilary in his On the Trinity (IV.xlii; III.xv). The renowned medieval Catholic theologian, Thomas Aquinas, held a similar view (Summa Theol. III. 52. 5). The apocryphal Gospel of Nicodemus, which dates from the fifth century A.D., claims that Jesus descended into hell and retrieved all the Old Testament saints, including Adam, David, Habakkuk, and Isaiah (see James, 1924, pp. 125ff.).

Further impetus for confusion was generated by the English translations of the 16th and 17th centuries, due to translator confusion regarding the technical distinctions that exist between the pertinent Greek terms. Specifically, the Greek term hades generally was equated with gehenna. Hades refers to the intermediate state of the dead (disembodied spirits) who are awaiting the Judgment. Gehenna, on the other hand, refers to the location of the final state of the wicked after the Judgment. This confusion culminated in the King James Version’s rendering of hades as “hell” in all ten of its occurrences in the New Testament (Matthew 11:23; 16:18; Luke 10:15; 16:23; Acts 2:27,31; Revelation 1:18; 6:8; 20:13,14). Rendering hades as “hell” in Acts 2:27,31 leaves the reader with the impression that when Jesus exited His physical body on the cross, He went to hell. The first English translation to maintain the distinction between hades and gehenna was the English Revised Version and its subsequent American counterpart, the American Standard Version of 1901 (Lewis, 1981, p. 64).

In 1 Peter 3:18-20, a most curious reference appears on the surface to be an affirmation that Jesus descended into the spirit realm and preached to deceased people. However, a close consideration of the grammar will clarify the passage. First, the preaching referred to was not done by Jesus in His own person. The text says Jesus did the preaching through the Holy Spirit: “…the Spirit, by whom…” (v. 18-19). [“My Spirit” (Genesis 6:3) = the Spirit of God = the Spirit of Christ (Romans 8:9; Ephesians 2:17).] Other passages confirm that Jesus was said to do things that He actually did through the instrumentality of others (John 4:1-2; Ephesians 2:17). Nathan charged King David: “You have killed Uriah the Hittite with the sword” (2 Samuel 12:9), when, in fact, David had ordered it done by another. Elijah accused Ahab of killing Naboth, using the words, “Have you murdered and also taken possession?” (1 Kings 21:19), even though his wife, Jezebel, arranged for two other men to accomplish the evil action. Paul said Jesus preached peace to the Gentiles (Ephesians 2:17), when, in fact, Jesus did so through others, since He, Himself, already had returned to heaven when the first Gentiles heard the Gospel (Acts 15:7). So the Bible frequently refers to someone doing something that he, in fact, did through the agency of another person.

In fact, within the book of 1 Peter itself, Peter already had made reference to the fact that the Spirit “testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow” (1 Peter 1:11). But it was the prophets who did the actual speaking (vs. 10). Then, again in chapter 4, Peter stated that “the gospel was preached also to those who are dead” (1 Peter 4:6). Here were individuals who had the Gospel preached to them while they were alive (“in the flesh”), and who responded favorably by becoming Christians. But then they were “judged according to men in the flesh,” i.e., they were treated harshly and condemned to martyrdom by their contemporaries. At the time Peter was writing, they were “dead,” i.e., deceased and departed from the Earth. But Peter said they “live according to God in the spirit,”


{Unfortunately, the rest of Dave Miller's article has many errors in it due to his not investigating the biblical doctrine of the state of the dead.}

2007-12-22 03:08:59 · answer #6 · answered by BC 6 · 0 0

Do you honestly think a fiery furnace could hurt God? No. His torment was on the cross when He took upon Himself the sins of the world and His Father turned away from Him and could not look on Him for that moment. Nothing can physically hurt God. He had to come to us in man's form to know our physical pain. Only those 33 years when He lay down all His Godly powers and became a human did He suffer pain physically. Humanity, on the other hand, can break His heart.

2007-12-21 19:37:44 · answer #7 · answered by Joyful Noise 5 · 1 7

Jesus would not have believed in hell as he was Jewish, and in Judaism there is no concept of the eternal hellfire and brimstone that one finds in Christianity.

2007-12-21 19:50:10 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

Technically it wasn't Hell. It was actually Purgatory which held all the good people who passed away before Jesus died...St. Anne, St. Elizabeth, St. Joseph...etc. & brought them 2 Heaven.

2007-12-21 20:55:27 · answer #9 · answered by Faye 6 · 0 4

So this is to say also, "that his flesh to bear no corruption" ?

Being nailed to the cross and stuck with a spear (not Brittany) seems to show this wrong. However, the writing of this is very poor -- he this, he that with no absolute indication of which he is being spoken of at which time.

2007-12-21 19:45:14 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 5

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